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Organisation : State Board of Technical Education and Training, Mangalagiri  SBTET Andhra Pradesh
Exam Name : Polytechnic Common Entrance Test (POLYCET)  AP
Document Type : Old Question Paper
Year : 2019 to 2023
Website :

Structure of Question Paper for POLYCET

The question paper for common Entrance Test for admission into Polytechnics consists of 120 questions.
Section A 01 to 50 Mathematics
Section B 51 to 90 Physics
Section C 91 to 120 Chemistry.

All questions are of multiple choice type. Each question will have a stem and four answers noted against as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Out of these four, only one is an appropriate answer to the statement given in stem and other three are distracters. A few sample questions of the type in all subjects are shown here.

Related / Similar Question Paper : Shivaji University Ph.D. Entrance Examination Question Paper

The stem is given both in Telugu and English. The distracters are also given in both languages whenever necessary. All correct responses (Answers) to the questions must be entered by shading / darkening the circle / oval on the OMR Response Sheet provided separately for this purpose.

POLYCET Old Question Paper

The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorization of 156 is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

If four vertices of a parallelogram are ( 3, 1),( , ),(3,3) and (4,3)a b− − taken in order, then the ratio of a and b is
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

If the centroid of the triangle formed by the points (3, 5),( 7,4) and (10, )k− − − is at the point (k, –1), then the value of k is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

If the height of a conical tent is 3 m and the radius of its base is 4 m, then the slant height of the tent is
(1) 3 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 7 m

If the radius of the base of a right-circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height same, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1

The number of electrons gained by non-metal element is equal to its
(1) valency
(2) group number
(3) bond length
(4) All of these

Corrosion of copper produces
(1) copper oxide
(2) copper carbonate
(3) copper sulphate
(4) pure copper

22-carat Gold contains
(1) 22 parts of Gold + 2 parts of Nickel
(2) 22 parts of Gold + 2 parts of Copper
(3) 22 parts of Gold + 22 parts of Silver
(4) 22 parts of Gold + 2 parts of Chromium

Formula of Rust is
(1) Fe2O3 × H2O
(2) Fe2O4 × H2O
(3) Fe(OH)2
(4) Fe(OH)3

Chemical used to remove impurities from ore is called
(1) gangue
(2) mineral
(3) flux
(4) slag

By moving top to bottom in group, valency will
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) No change
(4) increase and decrease

Atomic number of the element of VA group, coming after nitrogen is
(1) 7
(2) 15
(3) 14
(4) 17

Identify the element that belongs to 2nd group and 3rd period.
(1) Na
(2) Al
(3) Mg
(4) Cl

Identify the correct statement.
(1) All s block elements are metals
(2) All p block elements are metals
(3) All s block elements are non-metals
(4) All p block elements are non-metals

VIA group elements are called
(1) chalcogens
(2) oxygen family
(3) halogens
(4) Both (1) and (2)

functional group indicates
(1) aldehyde
(2) ester
(3) alcohol
(4) ketone

Ethyl alcohol upon oxidation produces
(1) ester
(2) aldehyde
(3) ether
(4) alkane

Ethene and ethyne differ in
(1) number of carbons
(2) number of bonds
(3) number of hydrogens
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Which of the following are called paraffins?
(1) Alkanes
(2) Alkenes
(3) Alkynes
(4) Alkyls

Cough Syrup contains
(1) ethanol
(2) ethanoic acid
(3) ethanal
(4) ethyl acetate

OMR Sheet Instructions of POLYCET

** The candidates should handle the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet carefully. They are advised not to fold or wrinkle or tear the response sheet under any circumstances.

** Further the Candidates are advised not to scribble or make any marks on the response sheet except marking the answers and other relevant data at the appropriate place on the Response Sheet. Any violation of these instructions will automatically lead to the disqualification of the Candidate.

** Candidates shall note that they will not be given a second blank Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet under any circumstances. Hence, they are advised to be very careful while handling the OMR response sheet.
** Candidates shall read the instruction sheet carefully before starting to answer the questions.
** The question paper booklet given to the Candidates shall consist of 120 multiple choice type questions in three different sections with four responses given to each question out of which only one response is correct for the given question.
** Candidates shall mark the correct answer in the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet by shading in Dark the appropriate circle with 2B pencil only. They should not use under any circumstance Ball pen for this purpose.
** Candidates shall be required to indicate their Hall ticket number on the Optical mark reader (OMR) response sheet. It shall be done as demonstrated by shading the appropriate circle.
** Candidates are requested to answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
** Candidates must remain seated in their allotted places till the completion of the Examination. Before leaving, the candidates must return the OMR response sheet/answer sheet and can take away the question paper booklet.

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