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HPSC Previous Question Paper Medical Officer : Haryana Public Service Commission

Organisation : Haryana Public Service Commission, HPSC
Recruitment Name : Medical Officer (Group-A) (HCMS-I)
Document Type : Previous Question Paper
Year : 2023
Website :

HPSC Medical Officer Question Paper

Screening Test of Medical Officer (Group-A) (HCMS-I) in ESI Health Care
Time Allowed : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 100

1. Which of the following blood vessels is responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?
[A] Pulmonary artery
[B] Pulmonary vein
[C] Aorta
[D] Superior vena cava
[E] Un-attempted

2. Which of the following statements accurately describes generic drugs?
[A] Generic drugs have the same brand name as the original innovator drug
[B] Generic drugs have different chemical structures compared to the innovator drug
[C] Generic drugs are typically more expensive than the innovator drug
[D] Generic drugs have the same active ingredients and therapeutic effects as the innovator drug
[E] Un-attempted

3. Breast tumors may be positive for estrogen receptors (ER+), progesterone receptors (PR+) or both (ER/PR+). What percentage of breast cancer cases are estimated to be hormone receptor-positive (ER+ or ER/PR+) and what is the primary treatment modality for localized breast cancer?
[A] 10-20%; Radiation therapy
[B] 30-40%; Hormonal therapy
[C] 50-60%; Chemotherapy
[D] 70-80%; Surgery
[E] Un-attempted

4. What is the legal limit of blood alcohol concentration as per traffic rules in India?
[A] 40 mg%
[B] 50 mg%
[C] 30 mg%
[D] 20 mg%
[E] Un-attempted

5. A 60-year old male with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents to the clinic complaining of worsening symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. His blood pressure is elevated and he has peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals decreased Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) and dilated ventricles. Which of the following pharmacological agents is the most appropriate choice for this patient?
[A] Beta-blocker
[B] Calcium channel blocker
[C] Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
[D] Digitalis
[E] Un-attempted

6. A 28-year old male presents with a persistent and severe depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure in almost all activities, significant weight loss, insomnia, fatigue and feelings of worthlessness. The symptoms have been present for the past six months and have significantly impaired his daily functioning. Which of the following pharmacological agents is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?
[A] Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
[B] Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
[C] Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
[D] Atypical antipsychotic
[E] Un-attempted

7. Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of drug potency?
[A] Drug potency is determined by the rate of drug absorption and distribution
[B] Drug potency is a measure of the maximum effect a drug can produce
[C] Drug potency refers to the ability of a drug to bind to its target receptor
[D] Drug potency is a measure of the dose required to produce a specific effect
[E] Un-attempted

8. Which of the following is not a function of the Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)?
[A] Regulation of calcium levels in the blood
[B] Promotion of bone resorption
[C] Enhancement of intestinal absorption of calcium
[D] Inhibition of renal reabsorption of calcium
[E] Un-attempted

9. Which of the following is a low- potency corticosteroid used topically in the treatment of atopic dermatitis?
[A] Clobetasol propionate
[B] Fluocinonide
[C] Triamcinolone acetonide
[D] Hydrocortisone
[E] Un-attempted

10. A 19-month old girl with diarrhea for the past 3 months is brought to the out-patient department. She passes soft but formed stool in the morning and then 7-8 of increasingly soft-to-watery stools. Occasionally, there is undigested food in her stools. There are no nocturnal stools, fever or weight loss. Examination is unremarkable. Her investigation : hemoglobin- 12·4 mg/dL; tTG-IgA negative and a normal stool examination. What is the likely diagnosis?
[A] Toddler’s diarrhea
[B] Cow milk protein allergy
[C] Celiac Disease
[D] Giardiasis
[E] Un-attempted

11. Which of the following biochemical changes is common to both aging cartilage and osteoarthritic (OA) cartilage?
[A] Increased water content
[B] Decreased collagen content and decreased modulus of elasticity
[C] Decreased proteoglycan content
[D] Increased chondroitin sulfate concentration
[E] Un-attempted

12. Which of the following can be lifesaving in angioneurotic edema?
[A] Antihistamine
[B] Hydrocortisone
[C] Mineralocorticoid
[D] Adrenaline
[E] Un-attempted

13. What is the long-term impact of cholecystectomy on digestion?
[A] Increased absorption of nutrients
[B] Decreased absorption of nutrients
[C] No significant impact on digestion
[D] Increased risk of food allergies
[E] Un-attempted

14. A 45-year old female patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, weakness and increased heart rate. Physical examination reveals a palpable thyroid gland and laboratory tests indicate elevated levels of serum thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) along with decreased levels of thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for these findings?
[A] Primary hyperthyroidism
[B] Secondary hyperthyroidism
[C] Primary hypothyroidism
[D] Secondary hypothyroidism
[E] Un-attempted

15. Which of the following anti-asthma medications has both a rapid onset and long duration of action (up to 12 hours)?
[A] Budesonide
[B] Formoterol
[C] Aminophylline
[D] Salbutamol
[E] Un-attempted

Instructions For Candidates


2. Please note that it is your responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Question Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the OMR Answer Sheet liable for rejection.

3. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question is printed in English only. Each question comprises of five responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the OMR Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question.

4. You will have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided. See Instructions at the backside of the OMR Answer Sheet.
5. All questions carry equal marks.

6. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR Answer Sheet the responses to various questions in the Question Booklet, you will have to fill in some particulars in the OMR Answer Sheet as per Instructions mentioned on the OMR Answer Sheet.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the OMR Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Question Booklet, along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Answer Sheet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end.

9. Penalty for wrong answers :
(i) There are five alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question, for which a wrong answer has been given by you, 0.25 mark assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If you give more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) As a candidate, if you decide not to attempt a question, then you will have to darken the corresponding circle [E] in the OMR Answer Sheet as shown in the diagram below.
(iv) Failure to mark/darken the circle [E] in Un-attempted questions will attract penalty and one fourth mark or 0·25 mark for each [E] left blank will be deducted.

Download Previous Question Paper

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