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KPSC Question Paper Staff Nurse Grade II, Junior Male Nurse : Kerala Public Service Commission

Organisation : KPSC Kerala Public Service Commission
Recruitment Name : Staff Nurse Grade II, Junior Male Nurse
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2024
Website :

KPSC Staff Nurse Question Paper

Total Number of Questions : 100
Time : 90 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 10

1. The most potent stimulus for medullary chemoreceptors is
A) ↓ pO2 in blood
B) ↑ H+ concentration in blood
C) ↑ pCO2 in CSF
d) ↑ H+ concentration in CSF

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2. Which of the following is not present in pancreatic juice ?
A) Aminopeptidase
B) Amylase
C) lipase
d) Ribonuclease

3. Phase 2 of Cardiac muscle action potential is due to
A) Na+ influx
B) K+ efflux
C) Ca2+ influx
D) Ca2+ efflux

4. Choose the incorrect statement about blood groups.
A) landsteiner law is applicable to all blood group systems
B) Only naturally occurring antibodies are A and B
C) Rh antibody is found only after sensitisation
d) O negative blood group is universal donor

5. Choose the false statement about Neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle.
A) Acetyl Choline is the neurotransmitter
B) Action potentials are produced at motor end plates
C) Antibodies are produced against acetyl choline receptors in mysthenia gravis
d) Gallamine is a non depolarising blocker drug

6. The sensation transmitted by lateral spinothalamic pathway is
A) Vibration
B) Pain
C) Fine touch
d) Pressure

7. The concept that Hand washing is the first preventive measure in control of infection was put forward by
A) Ernst Ruska
B) louis Pasteur
C) Ignaz Semmelweis
d) Robert Koch

8. Transduction is one mechanism of genetic transfer resulting in antibiotic resistance by
A) Plasmid
B) Bacteriophage
C) Transposons
d) Insertion sequences

9. Anaerobic Culture methods include all except
A) Thioglycollate broth
B) GasPak
C) macConkey Agar
d) Anaerobic Blood Agar

10. Sexually transmitted infections include all except
A) Shigella dysentery
B) Gonorrhoea
C) Syphilis
d) Herpes simplex type 2

11. The defence mechanism in which channelling of an unacceptable desires, impulses and behaviours into socially accepted behaviours is called
A) Repression
B) Regression
C) Sublimation
d) Suppression

12. Which of the following are perceptual disorders ?
i. delusion
ii. Illusion
iii. Hallucination
iv. dementia
A) Only ii and iii
B) Only i and iv
C) Only i and iii
d) All of the above i, ii, iii, iv

13. What is the theory which says “we feel sad because we cry and we are afraid because we tremble” ?
A) lazarus’ theory
B) Schachter and Singer’s theory
C) Cannon – Bard theory
D) James – lange theory

14. What is a scale on which a pairs of opposite adjectives are presented called ?
A) Visual analogue scale
B) Guttman scale
C) Semantic differential scale
D) likert scale

15. Which of the following is the correct hierarchical order of maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory ?
i. Self-esteem needs
ii. Physiological needs
iii. Self-actualization needs
iv. Safety and security needs
v. love, affection and belongingness needs
A) i, ii, iii, iv and v
B) ii, iv, v, i and iii
C) ii, v, iv, i and iii
d) iv, ii, v, i and iii

16. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic motivation ?
A) Rewards
B) money
C) Grades
d) Employee’s feeling of self-worth

17. Which theory analyzes the concepts like personal troubles of milieu and public issues of social structure ?
A) Sociological imagination
B) Chicago school
C) Synthetic school
d) Formalistic school

18. The following question consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled as ‘Reason R’. you are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion (A) : Children pick up ways of behaving appropriately as per their culture from their friends, media and various other source.
reason (r) : Socialization is a complex process that takes place through various formal and informal means.
Choose the correct option :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are false

19. The following question consist of two statements, S1 and S2. Read the statements carefully and select the most appropriate option.
s1 : divorce is physical separation of a spouses.
s2 : Separation is legal termination of a marriage.
A) Both S1 and S2 are true
B) S1 is true and S2 is false
C) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false

20. Which one of the following statements is true to describe ‘domestic Violence’ ?
A) In ‘domestic Violence’, the only victims are ‘married Women’
B) ‘Girl Child’ are only vulnerable to ‘domestic Violence’
C) ‘domestic Violence’ includes physical, sexual, mental, verbal, emotional and economic abuse of a person in a household setting
d) ‘domestic Violence’ is an indication of progressive society

Instructions To Candidates

1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & d.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator Immediately.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same alpha code.
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.

7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.

8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer sheet before marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (d) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OmR Answer Sheet.
11. each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.

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