upenergy.in UPPCL Junior Engineer JE Exam Question Paper 2019 : Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation
Organisation : Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited
Exam: Junior Engineer (JE) Exam
Document Type : Question Paper
Year: 2019
Website : upenergy [dot] in
UPPCL Junior Engineer JE Exam Question Paper
Download Question Paper of Junior Engineer (JE) Exam 2019 Sample Question is now available in the official website of Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited.
Related : Uttarakhand Public Service Commission APO Pre Exam Model Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/11423.html
Instructions
1. Immediately After The Commencement Of The Examination, You Should Check That This Test Booklet Does Not Have Any Unprinted Or Torn Or Missing Pages Or Items, Etc. If So, Get It Replaced By A Complete Test Booklet.
2. Encode Clearly The Test Booklet Series A, B, C Or D As The Case May Be In The Appropriate Place In The Answer Sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART – A and 60 in PART – B. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which youwant to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
There Will Be Penalty For Wrong Answers Marked By A Candidate In The Objective Type Question Papers.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer evenif one of the given answers happiness to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
Download Question Paper :
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Sample Question
Part – I
01. Consider the following statements:
1. Standard penetration test is commonly used for cohesionless soils.
2. Standard penetration test results in respect of a cohesionless soil are correlated to its density index and friction angle.
3. Use of H-value not corrected for overburden pressure leads to highly conservative design of footings at shallow depths.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (a)
02. Consider the following statements:
1. The benefit of surcharge and depth of foundation is only marginal in case of footings on purely cohesive soils.
2. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure clay increases with increase in size of the footing.
3. Size effects in plate load tests are more important in case of cohesionless soils. Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (d)
03. The mean unconfined compressive strength of a purely cohesive soil was found to be 50 kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of a square footing calculated by Terzaghi’s concept (bearing capacity factor NC = 5.7) will be
(a) 185.25 kN/m2
(b) 390.5 kN/m2
(c) 285 kN/m2
(d) 142.5 kN/m2
Ans: (a)
04. The field density and field moisture content of a soil can be determined by
1. Core cutter method 2. Sand replacement method
3. Proctor compaction test 4. Modified proctor compaction test
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 2 & 4 only
Ans: (b)
05. Consider the following statements:
1. Friction piles are also called floating piles
2. Minimum number of piles to qualify as a pile group is three.
3. The group efficiency of a pile group may be either less than 100% or more than 100%.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (a)
06. Consider the following statements relating to foundations on expansive soils:
1. Strength should be improved and compressibility should be reduced.
2. Compressibility should be increased.
3. No stabilization should be done.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
07. Consider the following statements:
1. Buried service lines should be avoided in an expansive soil region.
2. A swelling pressure less than 20 kN/m2 is not of much consequence.
3. If soil is not black in colour, it is unlikely to be an expansive soil.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (b)
10. If the whole circle bearing is 315o 20’, its quadrantal bearing would be
(a) S 36o 30’ W
(b) N 44o 40’ W
(c) N 57o 24’ W
(d) S 60o 40’ W
Ans: (b)
11. If the observed forebearing of a line xy is 16o 26’, the back bearing of this line is
(a) 103o 26’
(b) 118o 36’
(c) 196o 26’
(d) 206o 26’
Ans: (c)
12. The subtense tacheometry method is adopted when the ground is
(a) Flat
(b) Inclined
(c) Undulating
(d) A waterbody
Ans: (a)
14. R.L. of floor at a building is 74.4 m, staff reading on the floor is 1.625 and staff reading when it is held inverted with bottom touching the ceiling of a hall is 2.870; then the height of the ceiling above the floor is
(a) 3.593 m
(b) 3.953 m
(c) 4.495 m
(d) 4. 594 m
Ans: (c)
15. Consider the following pre-conditions for correct use of a theodolite:
1. The vertical axis need not be perpendicular to the plane of the plate level bubble.
2. The line of sight must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis.
3. The axis of the level tube attached to the telescope need not be parallel to the line of sight.
4. The vertical axis, the horizontal axis and the line of sight should all pass through a point known as stadia centre.
Which of these conditions is/are necessary?
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 & 4 only
Ans: (b)
16. Following observations were taken with a transit fitted with stadia wires. The line of sight was horizontal and the staff was held vertical.
Reading on staff (m)
Top hair 1.726
Middle hair 2.278
Bottom hair 2.830
The tacheometric constants k and C are 100 and 0.4 m respectively. The horizontal distance between staff and instrument is
(a) 90.8
(b) 100.8
(c) 110.8
(d) 120.8
Ans: (b)
17. Following observations were taken during a reciprocal leveling:
Instrument near P Q
Staff reading at P 1.824 0.928
Staff reading at Q 2.748 1.606
If reduced level of P is 140.815 m, the reduced level of Q is
(a) 138.014 m
(b) 139.616 m
(c) 140.014 m
(d) 141.616 m
Ans: (c)
18. A counter may be defined as an imaginary line passing through
(a) Points on the longitudinal section
(b) Points of equal elevation
(c) Point of equal local ground slope
(d) Points of transverse section surveys
Ans: (b)
19. A closed contour line with two or more higher contours inside it will represent a
(a) Depression
(b) Hill
(c) Cave
(d) Well
Ans: (b)
20. When compared with the co-latitude of the place of observation, the declination of a circumpolar star is always,
(a) Lesser
(b) Greater
(c) Equal
(d) Either lesser or equal
Ans: (b)
Part – II
Direction:
Each of the next following twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using code given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
101. Statement (I): In a flownet, each field must be a (curvilinear) square. Statement
(II): Each flow channel in a flownet has the same rate of flow.
Ans: (d)
102. Statement (I): Boundary layer theory is applicable only in the vicinity of the leading edge of a flat plate.
Statement (II): Boundary layer theory is based on the assumption that its thickness is small when compared to other linear dimensions in the flow.
Ans: (d)
103. Statement (I): The best hydraulic section always has the minimum excavation.
Statement (II): The best hydraulic section gives the minimum area for a given discharge.
Ans: (c)
104. Statement (I): A given channel may be classifiable as mild for one discharge, critical for another discharge, and steep for yet another discharge.
Statement (II): Normal depth and critical depth are independent functions of the discharge along with, or without, other appropriate parameters.
Ans: (a)
105. Statement (I): For a hydraulic ram, D’Aubuisson’s efficiency is always more than Rankine’s efficiency.
Statement (II): By definition, efficiency is always less than unity in any system of mechanics; and addition of a small value to both numerator and denominator in the ratio of such a case always improves the value.
Ans: (a)
106. Statement (I): Air pollutant concentration and time of retention increase due to inversion.
Statement (II): During winter, the heavy cold layer in the atmosphere retains the hot toxic pollutants for a longer period in the atmosphere.
Ans: (a)
107. Statement (I): Chlorides are added to kill pathogens as a disinfection process in the treatment of water.
Statement (II): It forms hypochlorous acid to oxidize the organic compounds including bacteria.
Ans: (d)
108. Statement (I): When a tube well penetrates into a homogeneous aquifer and is then pumped, there will occur lowering of water surface. The resultant surface is designated as ‘Drawdown curve’.
Statement (II): Since the pressure on the surface of the ‘Drawdown curve’ is always at atmospheric level, it is called by this name.
Ans: (b)
109. Statement (I): Fluoride concentrations of approximately 1.0 mg/l in drinking water help to prevent dental cavities in children.
Statement (II): During formation of permanent teeth, fluoride combines chemically with tooth enamel resulting in softer and weaker teeth that are less resistance to decay.
Ans: (c)
110. Statement (I): Virus is living organisms in a natural environment including soil.
Statement (II): Virus comes to life after entering the host tissue through contamination.
Ans: (d)