KELVIN Entrance Test KET Class 12th Engineering & Medical Sample Paper 2018
Name of the Organisation : KELVIN
Name of the Exam : KELVIN Entrance Test KET
Document Type : Sample Paper
Category : 12th Engineering & Medical
Year : 2018
Website : kelvin [dot] ac [dot] in
KELVIN KET Class 12th Engineering & Medical Sample Paper
Download KELVIN Entrance Test for 12th (Engineering) studying or passout students and KELVIN Entrance Test for 12th (Medical) studying or passout students Sample Question Paper from the official website.
Time: 80 Min.
Maximum Marks : 151
Related / Similar Question Paper :
KELVIN KTSE Class VIII Sample Paper 2018
Instructions
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above must be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out four choices with marking scheme in table below.
2. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.
4. Before attempting paper, write your, Registration Number, Name and Test Centre in the space provided at the top of this sheet.
5 See method of marking of bubbles of the back of cover page for question no. 1 to 60.
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Class 12th Engineering :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2019/33614-Engg.pdf
Class 12th Medical :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2019/33614-Medical.pdf
Class : 12th Passed (Engineering)
Code : A
Engineering Sample Paper
Physics
1. A particle of unit mass undergoes one – dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to ( ) where and n are constant and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is given by
2. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ? and radius R about its diameter is : (a) ? (b) ? (c) ? (d) ?
3. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic spheres having radii R and 2 R such that both spheres have equal surface charge density. Then charge on large sphere is
4. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1 ? resistor is Fig
(a) 1.3 from P to Q
(b) 0 A
(c) 0.13 A from Q to P
(d) 0.13 A, from P to Q
5. The refracting angle of a prism is A, the refractive index of the material of the prism is ( ) The angle of minimum deviation is:
(a) 180? ? 2 A
(b) 90? ? A
(c) 180? + 2 A
(d) 180? ? 3 A
Chemistry
16. Which of the following molecules is planar?
(a) SF4
(b) XeF4
(c) NF3
(d) SiF4
17. The number of electrons involved in the conversion of Mn to MnO2 is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
18. Two isomers of a compound Co(NH3)3Cl3 (MA3B3type) are shown in the figures. The isomers can be classified as
(a) (i) fac-isomers (ii) mer-isomer
(b) (i) optical-isomer (ii) trans-isomer
(c) (i) mer-isomer (ii) fac-isomers
(d) (i) trans-isomer (ii) cis-isomer.
19. CH3CH2CH2Br ? CH3CH-CH2
The above reaction is an example of ………. reaction.
(a) substitution
(b) elimination
(c) addition
(d) rearrangement
20. Paracetamol is used as an
(a) antibiotic
(b) antimalarial
(c) antipyretic
(d) arsenical
21. Correct IUPAC name for
(a) 2-Ethyl-3-methylpentane
(b) 3, 4-Dimethylhexane
(c) 2-sec-Butylbutane
(d) 2, 3-Dimethyl butane
22. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of an electron in any orbit is equal to
(a) 0
(b)
(c) 2
(d)
24. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute solution is 0.2. What is the mole fraction of the non-volatile solute?
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.2
25. For the reaction 4NH3 + 5O2 ? 4NO + 6H2O, if the rate of disappearance of NH3 is 3.6 ? 10-3 mol L-1s-1, what is the rate of formation of H2O?
(a) 5.4 ? 10-3 mol L-1s-1
(b) 3.6 ? 10-3 mol L-1s-1
(c) 4 ? 10-4 mol L-1s-1
(d) 0.6 ? 10-4 mol L-1s-1
26. Milk is a colloid in which a
(a) liquid is dispersed in a liquid
(b) solid is dispersed in a liquid
(c) gas is dispersed in a liquid
(d) sugar is dispersed in a liquid
27. Which one of the following noble gases is the least polarizable
(a) Xe
(b) Ar
(c) Ne
(d) He
Mathematics
31. For real number x and y, we write xRy ? x – y + v an irrational number. Then the relation R is
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) None of these
32. The interior angles of polygon are in A.P if the smallest angle be 120? and the common difference be 5?, then the number of sides of the polygon
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 6
33. If A = [ ], then
(a) Unit matrix
(b) Null matrix
(c) A
(d) -A
34. The value of ? ?
(a) v
(b) v
(c) v
(d) v v
35. cos( ) =
(a) v
(b) v
(c) 1 +
(d) None of these
36. The area of the triangle, whose vertices (1, 0), (7, 0) and (4, 4) is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
37. The equation of line through (3, -4) and perpendicular to the line 3x + 4y = 5 is
(a) 4x + 3y = 24
(b) y – 4 = (x + 3)
(c) 3y – 4x = 24
(d) y + 4 = (x – 3)
38. If the line x + 2by + 7 = 0 is a diameter of the circle , then b =
(a) 3
(b) -5
(c) -1
(d) 5
39. The directrix of the hyperbola is
(a) x = 9/v
(b) y = 9/v
(c) x = 6/ v
(d) y = 6/v
40. If the vectors 2 ^ – 3 ^, ^ + ^ – ^ and 3 ^ – ^ form three concurrent edges of a parallelopiped, then the volume of the parallelopiped is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) 14
Medical Sample Paper
Class : 12th Passed (Medical)
Code : A
Physics
1. Consider the fig. Shown below in which two masses of m and 2m are placed on a fixed triangular wedge. The coefficient of friction between block A and the wedge is 2/3, while that for block B and the wedge is 1/3.If the whole system is released from rest, then acceleration of block A is
(a) zero
(b) (c)
(d) v g
2. Three identical spherical shell each of mass m and radius r are placed as shown in Fig Consider an axis XX’ which is touching the two shells and passing through diameter of third shell. Moment of Inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX’ as axis is :
3. Two point charges + 8 q and ? 2 q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point on X-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charge is zero is :
(a) 2 L
(b) L/4
(c) 8 L
(d) 4 L
4. In the arrangement shown in Fig the current through 5 ? resistor is
(a) 2A
(b) zero
(c) 3A
(d) 5A
5. The current I ampere is flowing in an equilateral triangle of side a the magnetic field induction at the centroid will be
(a)
(b) v
(c)
(d) v .
6. A 50 Hz AC current of crest value 1 A flows through the primary of a transformer. If the mutual inductance between the primary and secondary be 0.5 H, the crest voltage induced in the secondary is
(a) 75 V
(b) 150 V
(c) 100 V
(d) none of these
7. A particle moving along X – axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by ( ) here and T and constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle velocity ( ) is
8. A monoatomic gas at pressure volume is compressed adiabatically to of its original volume. What is the final pressure of the gas? (a) (b) (c) (d)
9. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V ( ) the electric field ( ) at point ( ) is :
Chemistry
16. Which Of The following is a soda ash?
(a) Na2CO3· 10H2O
(b) Na2CO3· 7H2O
(c) Na2CO3· 6H2O
(d) Na2CO3
17. Which of the following will give H2 gas with Na?
(a) CH4
(b) C2H6
(c) C2H4
(d) C2H2
18. Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are
(a) Weakly bonded together
(b) Strongly bonded together
(c) Spherically symmetrical
(d) Arranged in planes
19. If the dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is solid, the colloid is known as a/ an
(a) gel
(b) emulsion
(c) sol
(d) foam
20. Conversion of ethyl alcohol into acetaldehyde is an example of
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Reduction
(d) Molecular rearrangement
21. Most acidic oxide is
(a) Na2O
(b) ZnO
(c) MgO
(d) P2O5
22. The ratio of charge and mass would be greater for
(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) neutron
(d) ?-particle
23. A liquid decomposes at its normal pressure. It can be purified by
(a) sublimation
(b) vacuum distillation
(c) fractional distillation
(d) steam distillation
24. A solution of H2SO4 whose 9.8 g is dissolved in 2 litre of water has molarity
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.05 M
(c) 0.01 M
(d) 0.2 M
25. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide ?
(a) Dichloromethane
(b) 1, 2-dichlorethane
(c) Ethylidene chloride
(d) Allyl chloride
26. Oxidation number of Fe in is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
27. Which process represents the change, Ti + 2I2 ? TiI4 ? Ti + 2I2
(a) Cupellation
(b) van Arkel
(c) Poling
(d) Zone refining
28. The pH at which Mg (OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg2+ ions (Ksp of Mg (OH)2 = 1 ? 10?11) is
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 10
29. Zn?Zn2+ (C1)?? Zn2+ (C2) ?Zn For this cell ?G is negative if
(a) C1 = C2
(b) C1 ? C2
(c) C2 ? C1
(d) None of these
30. The reaction is fastest when X is
(a) Cl
(b) an enamine
(c) OC2H5
(d) OCOR
Biology
31. ABO-blood group in man is controlled by
(a) Multiple alleles
(b) Multiple cells
(c) Sex-linked genes
(d) Y-linked genes
32. Humus is
(a) Completely decomposed organic matter
(b) Partially decomposed organic matter
(c) Partially decomposed inorganic matter
(d) Completely decomposed inorganic matter
33. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
(a) Ethanol
(b) Streptokinase
(c) Citric acid
(d) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
34. Blue – green algae (BGA) are chiefly used as fertilizer for
(a) Wheat
(b) Paddy
(c) Mustard
(d) Gram
35. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on:
(a) Althea rosea
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(d) Pisumsativum
36. Filiform apparatus plays an important role in
(a) Guiding pollen tubes into synergids
(b) Provide nutrition to male gametes
(c) Provide protection to egg
(d) Prevent the entry of pollen tube
37. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is
(a) It becomes ineffective after spraying
(b) It is less effective than others
(c) It is not easily degraded in nature
(d) Its high cost
38. Which of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water?
(a) Phenyl
(b) Chloramine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Ozone
39. An acromian process is characteristically found in the :
(a) Pelvic girdle of mammals
(b) Skull of frog
(c) Pectoral girdle of mammals
(d) Sperm of mammals
40. A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterize by :
(a) Down syndrome
(b) Triploidy
(c) Turner syndrome
(d) Super femaleness
41. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?
(a) Osteocytes
(b) Malpighian layer of the skin
(c) Liver cells
(d) Neurons
42. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects:
(a) All lymphocytes
(b) Activator B cells
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Cytotoxic T cells
43. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface:
(a) Pinocytic vesicles
(b) Phagocytic vesicles
(c) Zymogen granules
(d) Micro-villi
44. A patient is generally advise to specially, consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers from:
(a) Kwashiorkor
(b) Rickets
(c) Anaemia
(d) Scurvy
45. Phycoerythrin pigment is predominantly found in the members of
(a) Green algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Brown algae
(d) Chrysophytes