Amrita Entrance Examination Engineering Sample Question Paper : Vishwa Vidyapeetham

Organization : Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham
Department : B.Tech
Exam : Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering
Subject : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics
Document Type : Previous Year Question Paper
Website : https://www.amrita.edu/admissions
Download Model/Sample Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/23728-btech.pdf

Amrita Entrance Examination Question Paper

** Download Amrita Entrance Examination- Engineering Question Paper
Time: 2½ Hrs
Number of Questions : 100
Max. Marks: 300

Related : Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham B.Tech Engineering Entrance Examination Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/79.html

Instructions To The Candidates

General

1. Any malpractice or attempt to commit malpractice in the examination hall will lead to disqualification of the candidate.

2. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written bits of paper, Mathematical and Physical Tables, Electronic gadgets like tablet, calculator, cell phone, etc. into the examination hall.
3. Candidates shall possess the Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering 2015 Hall Ticket which should be produced on demand.
4. Candidates shall occupy the respective seats bearing their registration numbers.
5. Candidates shall sign the attendance sheet available with the invigilator.
6. Candidates are not permitted to leave the hall before the end of the examination.
7. Candidates are required to handover the ANSWER SHEET and the QUESTION BOOKLET to the invigilator before leaving the hall.
8. After submitting the answer sheet, candidates are required to affix their left thumb impression on the attendance sheet available with the invigilator.

Question Booklet

9. DO NOT OPEN THIS SEALED BOOKLET UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR ANNOUNCES TO DO SO.
10. Before opening the Question Booklet, write the Name, Registration Number and Signature using ball pen in the space provided at the top of this page.
11. Immediately after opening the booklet, examine whether it contains all the 100 questions in serial order and 20 pages as mentioned at the top of this page. In case of unprinted, torn or missing pages, the matter should be reported to the invigilator immediately.
12. Rough work may be done on the space provided in this booklet.

OMR Answer Sheet

13. Use the OMR answer sheet carefully; no spare sheet will be issued under any circumstance.
14. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
15. Use HB Pencil or Black ball point pen for shading the bubbles and ball point pen for writing.
16. In the OMR answer sheet, make the following entries
a. Write the Registration Number, Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Version code using ball point pen.
b. Fill the ovals corresponding to the Registration Number, Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Version Code using HB pencil / ball point pen.
c. Write your Name and Signature using ball point pen.
17. Rough work should not be done on the answer sheet.

Answering And Evaluation

18. For each question, four answers are suggested of which only one is correct / most appropriate. Mark the correct / most appropriate answer by darkening the corresponding bubble using HB pencil or Blue / Black ball point pen.
19. In case the candidate wishes to change the choice already shaded using HB pencil, he/she may erase the marking completely and thereafter shade the alternative bubble. If ball point pen is used for shading the ovals, make sure of the answer before shading since such markings cannot be altered.
20. If more than one bubble is darkened against a question, it will be treated as an incorrect answer.
21. For each correct answer, three marks will be awarded.
22. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.
23. If any smudge is left on the OMR sheet, evaluation will become imperfect.

Physics

1. The electric current in a circuit is given by I = I0 sin (t +?). What is the dimension of ?
a) second
b) 1/second
c) meter / second
d) dimensionless

2. The velocity varies with time according to the relation, v = 3t + 4. The distance travelled by the body in t = 2 s will be
a) 10 m
b) 12 m
c) 14 m
d) 16 m

3. When a projectile is at the highest point on its trajectory, the potential and kinetic energies are respectively
a) maximum and minimum
b) minimum and zero
c) zero and maximum
d) maximum and zero

4. A block of mass 2 kg starts moving when the angle of inclination of the inclined plane is 60o. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.6, the frictional force is
a) 2 N
b) 1 N
c) 4 N
d) 0.5 N

5. Two forces F1 = (7i + 2j) N and F2 = (-5i + 3j) N act on a particle. The third force F3 that should act on the particle to make it move with constant velocity is
a) (2i + 5j) N
b) (-2i – 5j) N
c) (–2i + 5j) N
d) (2i – 5j) N

6. Two satellites of masses 3M and M orbit the earth in circular orbits of radii r and 3r respectively. The ratio of their speeds is
a) 1 : 1
b) : 1
c) 3 : 1
d) 9 : 1

7. In an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The value of (which equals Cp/Cv) is
a) 5/4
b) 4/3
c) 5/3
d) 3/2

8. A mass is moving towards the origin along the x-axis with constant velocity. Its angular momentum with respect to the origin
a) remains constant
b) is zero
c) increases
d) decreases

9. The rate of cooling of a liquid is 4o C/s, when its temperature is 80o C and is 2o C/s when its temperature is 50o C. The temperature of the surrounding is
a) 30o C
b) 20o C
c) 10o C
d) 25o C

10. A Charged sphere of radius 1m carries a charge of 1 x 10-9 C. The electric fields at a point P, which is at a distance d = 3m from the centre of the sphere and at a point Q, at a distance d = 0.3m from the centre of the sphere are respectively
a) 1 N/C and 100 N/C
b) 1 N/C and zero
c) zero and 1 N/C
d) 1 N/C and 3 N/C

11. An electric dipole lying along X-axis with moment 5 Am2 is subjected to an electric field of magnitude 10j N/C. The torque experienced is
a) 2 Nm
b) 10 Nm
c) 50 Nm
d) 25 Nm

12. A parallel plate capacitor with air gap of 5 mm is 2 MFD. If a metallic plate of thickness 3 mm is inserted in between the plates, the new capacitance is
a) 5 MFD
b) 1 MFD
c) 2 MFD
d) 2.5 MFD

13. A galvanometer of resistance 50 ohm gives a full scale deflection when 3 mA current passes through it. The series resistance that is to be connected to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0 – 3 V is
a) 500 O
b) 950 O
c) 1000 O
d) 750 O

14. Two resistances 6O and 3O are connected in parallel and this combination is connected in series with a 4O resistance. This combination is powered by a voltage source of 12 V and zero internal resistance. The ratio of power dissipated between 6O resistance and 4O resistance is
a) 1:4
b) 4:1
c) 1:8
d) 3:2

15. Two charged particles of charge ratio 1:4 moving with same velocity enter a region of uniform magnetic field of strength B and get deflected and move along curves with equal radius R. The ratio of their masses is
a) 4:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:4
d) 1:2

Chemistry

31. The actual atomic weight of an element is represented in
a) number
b) “u”
c) “amu”
d) “mu”

32. The weight of nascent oxygen in milligrams obtained from 6.32 g of potassium permanganate (Molecular weight 158) in acid medium is
a) 16
b) 0.016
c) 0.16
d) 1.6

33. The value of Plank’s constant in units of Js is
a) 6.626 x 10-34
b) 6.626 x 10-23
c) 6.626 x 10-27
d) 1.38 x 10-23

34. The mass of proton having a wavelength of 4.2Ao is
a) 4.78 x 10-33 kg
b) 4.78 x 10-33 g
c) 7.17 x 10-33 kg
d) 2.39 x 10-33 g

35. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on
a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) first law of thermodynamics
c) second law of thermodynamics
d) kirchoffs equation

36. The bond dissociation enthalpies of H2(g), Cl2(g) and HCl(g) are 435, 243 and 431 kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) in kJ/mol will be
a) 121
b) -1211
c) -121
d) -242

37. Defective coating of zinc over mild steel leads to
a) enhanced corrosion of mild steel
b) increase of corrosion potential
c) corrosion of zinc coating
d) hydrogen evolution over mild steel

38. What will happen to the rate constant of a reaction when the temperature is raised by 10o C?
a) Increase by 10 times
b) Is halved
c) Is doubled
d) Not affected

39. The equivalent conductances at infinite dilution ( ) of ammonium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium chloride are 120, 240 and 150 mhocm2eq-1. The of ammonium hydroxide in mhocm2eq-1 is
a) 270
b) 210
c) 30
d) 510

40. 100 cm3 of an aqueous solution of protein contains 0.63 g of protein. If the osmotic pressure of the solution at 300K is 2.57 x 10-3 bar, the molar mass of the protein will be
a) 60039
b) 61039
c) 62039
d) 63039

41. A compound formed by elements P and Q crystallizes in cubic structure in which atoms of P are at corners and atoms of Q are at the face center. The formula of the compound is
a) AB3
b) AB
c) A3B
d) A2B

42. Syn gas is a mixture of
a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) methane and hydrogen
d) methane and carbon monoxide

43. Which one of the following alkali metal hydrides is thermally stable?
a) Lithium hydride
b) Sodium hydride
c) Potassium hydride
d) Rubidium hydride

44. The correct order of acidic character of the following is
a) SO2 > CO2 > CO >N2O5
b) SO2 > N2O5 > CO > CO2
c) N2O5 > SO2 > CO > CO2
d) N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO

45. Bell metal is an alloy of
a) copper and tin
b) silver and copper
c) copper and nickel
d) copper, zinc and tin

Mathematics

61. If a, b, c are AM, GM and HM respectively of two equal numbers, then
a) 2b = a + c
b) b = 2ac / (a+c)
c) b2 = ac
d) ab2 = c

62. The harmonic mean of the roots of the equation is (7 + v3) x2 – (6 + v7) x + (12 + 2v7 ) = 0
a) 8
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4

63. The general solution of x satisfying the system of equations 5(Sinx+Siny) = 1; 25(Sin2x+Sin2y) = 5 is
a) n/6
b) 2n+/6
c) n-(/6)
d) n+/6

64. The angles of a triangle are in A.P and the least angle is 40°. The greatest angle in radians is
a) /2
b) 4/9
c) /4
d) 3/2

65. If Sin=1/v5 and tan=1/2, then Cos is equal to
a) 2/v5
b) 1/v3
c) 1/v5
d) 1/(2v5)