Lead Talent Search Exam LTSE – 2017 PCMB India Sample Question Paper : leadtrust.in

Name of the Organisation : Lead Trust
Name of the Exam : LTSE – 2017 PCMB India
Document Type : Sample Question Paper
Year : 2017
Website : http://leadtrust.in/downloads.php
Download Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/23615-LTSE.pdf

Lead Trust Talent Search Exam Question Paper

** Entrance Test For 10Th Standard Students For 2 Year Residential Pu Coaching At Partner Institutions For Competitive Engineering / Medical Entrance Tests

Related / Similar Question Paper :
LTSE Exam Sample Paper

Selected students qualify for freeships/scholarships for admission into Partner Colleges in Karnataka and Kerala. The students will be provided extensive coaching for IIT-JEE 2019 / Karnataka CET 2019 / Kerala KEAM 2019 / NEET-UG (formerly AIPMT) entrance exams.

Instructions To The Candidate

1. This question paper consists of 5 sections out of which only 4 need to be attempted. Sections I, II and III are compulsory. From Sections IV and V, Students opting for Engineering need to attempt Section IV (Maths) and Students opting for Medical need to attempt Section V (Biology).
** Section I Physics – 20 questions
** Section II Chemistry – 20 questions
** Section III Logical Reasoning – 20 questions
** Section IV Mathematics – 20 questions
** Section V Biology – 20 questions

2. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.

3. Indicate your answers ONLY on the OMR sheet. If you are not attempting Section IV, then leave questions 61 to 80 as blank in OMR sheet. If you are not attempting Section V, then leave questions 81 to 100 as blank in OMR sheet.

4. NEGATIVE MARKING: Each correct answer will be awarded one mark, ¼ marks will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.
5. Use of Calculators, Smartphones and Electronic devices is NOT allowed.

LTSE Sample Question

Section I – Physics

1. A point object traverses half the distance with velocity v0 . The remaining part of the distance was covered with velocity v1 for the half the time and with velocity v2 for the rest half. The average velocity of the object for the whole journey is

2. During an investigation a student filled two cups with the same amount of water and placed them in a 20 °C room for 30 minutes. Cup 1 was filled with water at 5 °C, Cup 2 was filled with water at 35 °C. The diagram below shows the temperature of the cups at the beginning of the investigation Which of the following graph shows how the temperatures of the two cups of water most likely changed over 30 minutes?

3. Which of the following best describes the forces being used by the dog?
(A) The dog is pulling on the ground and pulling on the rope.
(B) The dog is pulling on the ground and pushing on the rope.
(C) The dog is pushing off the ground and pulling on the rope.
(D) The dog is pushing off the ground and pushing on the rope.

4. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz sound wave as it enters brass from warm air
(A) decreases by a factor 10
(B) increases by a factor 20
(C) increases by a factor 10
(D) decreases by a factor 20

5. There are two identical conducting bodies A and B. Body-A is given a positive charge Q as shown in the figure. Now A touches B for a moment and gets separated, then choose the INCORRECT statement.
(A) B gets positively charged
(B) B gets negatively charged
(C) A and B will have equal amounts of charge
(D) A and B both have positive charges.

6. Three small metal cubes have a mass of 20 g each. One cube is of aluminum (density = 2.7 g/cm3 ), one is of brass (density = 8.5 g/cm3 ) and one is of lead (density = 11.4 g/cm3 ). Which cube when dropped into a beaker of water, will result in the greatest rise in the water level?
(A) All will cause the same rise in water level
(B) Aluminum
(C) Brass
(D) Lead

7. In which of the following arrangement of resistors does the voltmeter M, which has a resistance of 2 W, gives the largest reading when the same potential difference is applied between points P and Q?
8. Hottest planet of our solar system
(A) is the only planet which supports life
(B) is the planet closest to Sun
(C) contains a large amount of carbon dioxide
(D) is also known as red planet

9. In figure, rays 1, 2 and 3 are the incident rays and 1′, 2′ and 3′ are the reflected rays from the region ABCD after reflection from a plane mirror kept inside ABCD.
Which option shows the correct location of the plane mirror?

10. In the shown figure, if F = 20 N, m1 = m2 = 3 kg and the acceleration is 0.5 m/s2 . If the friction forces on the two blocks are equal, what is the magnitude of frictional force on either block?
(A) 10 N
(B) 17 N
(C) 8.5 N
(D) 0

11. When ice is converted into water, the physical quantity which changes is
(A) Volume
(B) Latent heat
(C) Mass
(D) None

12. A closed compartment containing a gas is moving with some acceleration in horizontal direction. Neglect effect of gravity. Then the pressure in the compartment is
(A) same everywhere
(B) lower in the front side
(C) lower in the rear side
(D) higher in the upper side

14. Which motion is exhibited by the wheels of car as it comes down the ramp?
(A) Rotational only
(B) Translational only
(C) Curvilinear only
(D) Rotational and translational

15. The velocity-time graph of an object of mass m = 50 g is shown in figure. Observe the graph carefully and calculate the force acting on the object in time intervals (i) 0-3 s and (ii) 6-10 s
(A) (i) 40 N and (ii) 30 N
(B) (i) 2 N and (ii) 1.5 N
(C) (i) 200 N and (ii) –1500 N
(D) (i) 2 N and (ii) –1.5 N

Section II – Chemistry

21. The atomic number of an atom is 21. The total number of electrons in s, p and d orbitals respectively are
(A) 4, 16, 1
(B) 8, 12, 1
(C) 8, 13, 0
(D) 4, 17, 0

22. The decreasing order of the energy level among the following subshells is
(A) 4s > 3d > 4p > 5s
(B) 5s > 4p > 4s > 3d
(C) 3d > 4s > 4p > 5s
(D) 5s > 4p > 3d > 4s

23. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) When steam is passed over red hot coke, mixture of CO2 and H2 is formed.
(B) The soft drinks contain carbonic acid.
(C) When steam is passed over red hot iron, H2 is liberated.
(D) Potassium metal reacts with water liberating H2.

24. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) Calcium oxide is an acidic oxide.
(B) Sulphur dioxide is a basic oxide.
(C) Washing soda is used in softening hard water.
(D) Washing soda is an example of deliquescent substance.

25. A signature with a graphite pencil on a paper weighs 10 mg. What will be the number of carbon atoms present in the signature?
(A) 0.02 X 1021
(B) 0.502 X 1021
(C) 5.02 X 1024
(D) 5.02 X 1021

26. Which one of the following has the maximum number of atoms of oxygen? (Atomic mass: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, S = 32)
(A) 2g of carbon monoxide
(B) 2g of carbon dioxide
(C) 2g of sulphur dioxide
(D) 2g of water

27. An alcohol has a molecular formula C4H10O. The molecular formula of its sixth number of its homologous series is
(A) C6H16O
(B) C6H10O
(C) C6H12O
(D) C6H14O

28. Which of the following elements exhibit variable valency?
(A) Ca
(B) Potassium
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc

29. The total number of covalent bonds in propane and propene are respectively.
(A) 9 and 10
(B) 10 and 9
(C) 10 and 11
(D) 8 and 9

30. The molecular formula of ethanol and ethanal differ by ________ hydrogen atoms
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4

31. In the reaction Fe(s ) + CuSO4(aq) ? FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
(A) Fe is reduced.
(B) Fe is oxidised.
(C) Cu is oxidized.
(D) Fe acts as an oxidising agent.

32. The hydrogen bond is formed between a hydrogen atom and an atom of
(A) C
(B) F
(C) S
(D) P

33. The type of bond formed between an alkali metal and a halogen is
(A) Ionic
(B) Covalent
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Coordinate

34. When water is added to a glass of lemon juice, its pH
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) does not change
(D) unpredictable

35. If the formula of a metal chloride is MCl3, then the formula of its sulphate will be
(A) M2SO4
(B) M3(SO4)2
(C) M(SO4)3
(D) M2(SO4)3

Section III – Logical Reasoning

41. If Jan 8th 2017 is a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on Jan 8th 2016?
(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Saturday
(D) Friday

42. Two positions of a dice are shown. Which number will appear on the face opposite the one having 5?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4

43. If Ayesha says, “The father of Hussain is the only son of my father”, then how is Ayesha related to Hussain?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) None of the above

44. Ahmed is heavier than Amjad but not as much as Hussain. Amjad is heavier than Faisal. Sajid is heavier than Ahmed, but lighter than Shuaib. Who is the lightest?
(A) Hussain
(B) Shuaib
(C) Faisal
(D) Amjad

45. What will come in place of the question mark “?“
B2S, F6P, J14M, ?
(A) N30I (B) M24I
(C) N30J (D) P24J

46. What day comes three days after the day which comes two days after the day which comes immediately after the day which comes two days after Monday?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Monday
(D) Sunday

47. A factory was cutting rolls of cloth into 1 metre lengths, from a 200 metre roll. How long would it take for the machine to cut the roll if each cut took 4 seconds?
(A) 13.34 mins
(B) 13.27 mins
(C) 14 mins
(D) 13.67 mins

48. Statement: Some books are toys. No toy is red.
Conclusions:
I) Some books are red.
II) Some books are not red.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion follows?
(A) Only conclusion I is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Both I and II are true
(D) Neither I nor II are true

49. If 3 × 6 = 18; 4 × 7 = 22; 9 × 1 =20, then 5 × 2 = ?. Find the value of ? from the following
(A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 3

50. Nitin was counting down from 32. Sumit was counting upwards the numbers starting from 1 and he was calling out only the odd numbers. What common number will they call out at the same time if they were calling out at the same speed?
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) They will not call out the same number

Section IV – Mathematics

61. Find the value of 300[0.09](1/2)[0.027](1/3)
(A) 25
(B) 9
(C) 27
(D) 3

62. A cube with a side 1 m long has been cut into cubes of a side 0.1 m each. All small cubes have been put one on top of the other, to form a vertical structure. What is the height of this structure?
(A) 100 m
(B) 1 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 1000 km

63. In the following figure, the diameter of circle is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is perpendicular to AB such that AE : EB = 1 : 2 and DF is perpendicular to MN such that NL : LM = 1 : 2. The length of DH in cm is
(A) 2v2 – 1
(B) (2v2 – 1) /2
(C) (3v2 – 1) /2
(D) (2v2 – 1) /3

64. f(x) is a linear function. If f(1) = –1 and f(2) = 14. Find the value of f(15).
(A) 214
(B) 201
(C) 213
(D) 209

65. Three points of a triangle ABC are A (4, 1), B (5, – 1) and C (7, 2). The triangle lies in
(A) 1st and 2nd quadrant
(B) 2nd and 3rd quadrant
(C) 1st and 4th quadrant
(D) 2nd quadrant

Section V – Biology

81. A Segment of DNA contains 1200 nucleotides, of which 200 have adenine base. How many cytosine bases are present in this segment of DNA?
(A) 100
(B) 800
(C) 200
(D) 400

82. Match the items given in column A and column B and identify the correct alternative listed below
Column A Column B
a. Flying fish i. Draco
b. Flying lizard ii. Echidna
c. Egg laying mammals iii. Exocoetus
d. Flightless bird iv. Struthio

(A) a-(i) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(iv)
(B) a-(iii) b-(i) c-(ii) d-(iv)
(C) a-(iii) b-(i) c-(iv) d-(ii)
(D) a-(i) b-(ii) c(iv) d(ii)

83. A leguminous plant growing in an autoclaved, sterilized soil fails to produce root nodules because
(A) Autoclaved soil is not good for root growth.
(B) Autoclaving reduces N2 content of soil.
(C) Autoclaved soil is devoid of bacteria.
(D) Plants cannot form root hairs in such soil.

84. The causative agent of the disease ‘sleeping sickness’ in human beings is an
(A) Intracellular parasite found in RBC.
(B) Extracellular parasite found in blood plasma.
(C) Intracellular parasite found in WBC.
(D) Extracellular parasite found on the surface of platelets.

85. The gene of hemophilia is present on X-chromosome. If a hemophilic male marries a normal female, the probability of their son being hemophilic is
(A) Nil
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%