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All posts from Combined Defence Services Examination-II Model Question Paper 2016 : Union Public Service Commission

Organisation : Union Public Service Commission
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2016
Exam : Combined Defence Services Examination -II 2016

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Combined Defence Services Question Paper -II 2016 :

Subject : General Knowledge
Time Allowed : Two Hours
Maximum Marks : 100

 Related : UPSC UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam – I Sample Question Paper 2015 :

Instructions :
** Immediately After The Commencement Of The Examination, You Should Check That This Test Booklet Does Not Have Any Unprinted Or Torn Or Missing Pages Or Items, Etc, If So, Get It Replaced By A Complete Test Booklet.

** Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet.

** Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
** You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
** This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English.

** Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
** In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

** You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
** See directions in the Answer Sheet.
** All items carry equal marks.

** Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

Answer All the Question :
1. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Methane
(d) Oxygen

2. Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change?
(a) Amphibian
(b) Reptile
(c) Mammal
(d) Insect

3. Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India?
(a) Hydropower plants
(b) Nuclear power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Wind energy

4. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys
(a) mast cells
(b) platelets
(c) erythrocytes
(d) lymphocytes

5. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen- carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death?
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Fly ash
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide

6. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called
1. Parthenogenesis
2. Apogamy
3. Sporophytic budding
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
(a) Coal
(b) Diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) Graphene

8. In paper manufacturing, gumming of the raw material is done using
(a) sulphuric acid
(b) bleaching powder
(c) caustic soda
(d) nitric acid

9. Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to
(a) increase the pH of the soil
(b) lower the pH of the soil
(c) increase the phosphorus content of the soil
(d) increase the nitrogen content of the soil

10. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following health problems?
(a) Tooth caries
(b) Mottling of tooth
(c) Bending of bones
(d) Stiffening of joints

11. Excessive use of which of the following fertilizers may be responsible for the presence of a toxic substance in groundwater?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphate only
(c) Potassium only
(d) Phosphate and potassium

12. Which one of the following elements does not form solid hydrogen carbonate?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Caesium
(d) Lithium

13. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population?
(a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
(b) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab
(c) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam
(d) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam

14. With reference to earthquakes, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate boundaries.
2. Point of origin of earthquake in lithosphere is known as focus/ hypocentre.
3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre
4. Epicentre of earthquake always remains over continents only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4

15. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct?
1. Madhya Pradesh – Largest tribal population
2. Mizoram – Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State
3. Chhattisgarh – Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh
4. Arunachal Pradesh – Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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  1. Please give answers of all these questions.

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