UPSC GDMO-MO Gr-II & Doctor Gr-II Sample Question Paper 2015 : Union Public Service Commission

Name of the Organisation : Union Public Service Commission
Name of the Post : GDMO of MO Gr-II & Doctor Gr-II Sample Question Paper 2015
Year : 2015

Website : https://www.upsc.gov.in/
Download Sample Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/8249GDMO.pdf

GDMO – MO Gr-II & Doctor Gr-II Sample Question Paper

Instruction :
** Immediately After The Commencement Of The Examination, You Should Check That This Test Booklet Not Have Any Un printed Or Torn Or Missing Pages Or Items, Etc. If Sc, Get It Replaced By A Complete Test.

Related : UPSC Assistant Architect Sample Question Paper 2015 : www.pdfquestion.in/8247.html

** Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Røll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet.

** Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
** You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
** write anything else on the Test Booklet,

** This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) in two parts: PART – A and PART – B. Each item in PART – B is printed both in Hindi and English.
** Each item comprises four responses (answers).
** You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.

** In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best In any case, chose ( ONE response for each iteril.)
** You have to mark all your responses of F on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
** See directions in the Answer. Sheet

** All items carry equal marks, Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet is per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

** After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
** You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
** Sheets for rough work are upended in the Test Booklet at the end.

Penalty for wrong Answers :
** There Will Be Penalty For Wrung Answers Market, By The Cancelled In The Objective type Question Papers

** There are four alternatives for the answer to every question.
** For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0-33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty,

** If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given un answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, –
** If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question

1. Which one of the following infections is mainly responsible for recurrent exacerbation of COAD in elderly?
(a) Rota virus
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Haemophilus influenza

2. The following diseases have autosomal dominant inheritance except
(a) Polycystic kidney disease
(b) Peutz Jegher syndrome
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Von Willebrand disease

3. A young female presents with right heart failure. On examination she has an elevated JVP with giant a wave, systolic murmur at left sternal border, soft delayed P2 with an ejection sound. The ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy. She is likely to have:
(a) Pulmonary stenosis
(b) Tricuspid regurgitation
(c) Atrial septal defect
(d) Ventricular septal defect

4. Nocturnal hypoxaemia in COPD is due to all the following except
(a) An increase in upper airway resistance because of muscle tone
(b) Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors
(c) Shallow breathing in REM sleep, reduced ventilation
(d) Inhibition of intercostals and accessory muscles in REM sleep

5. A 50 year old male presented with acute onset dyspnoea, orthopnoea and pinkish frothy sputum. The clinical diagnosis is
(a) Acute bronchial asthma
(b) Acute pulmonary oedema
(c) Acute pulmonary embolism
(d) Pneumonia

6. Pseudo membranous colitis is caused by which of the following organisms?
(a) Shigella
(b) E. coli
(c) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Clostridium difficile

7. The ventricular tachycardia can respond to all of the following except
(a) D C Cardioversion
(b) I.V. Amiodarone
(c) I.V. Lidocaine
(d) I.V. Digitalis

8. Which one of the following cardiac enzymes does not remain elevated for more than 48 hours after myocardial infarction?
(a) Creatinine kinase M B
(b) Troponin T
(c) Lactic dehydrogenase
(d) Aspartate amino transferase

9. All the following are helpful in the management of acute pulmonary oedema except
(a) Administration of high flow high concentration oxygen
(b) Use of Morphine
(c) Administration of loop diuretics
(d) Make the patient lie in supine position

10. All of the following aggravate heart failure except
(a) Intercurrent Infection
(b) Arrhythmia
(c) Fluid restriction
(d) Anaemia

11. The following are true for hypertrophied cardio myopathy except
(a) Systolic murmurs
(b) Triple apical impulse
(c) Diastolic murmur
(d) Jerky carotid pulse

12. ‘Shrinking lungs ‘in systematic lupus erythematosis is attributed to
(a) Fibrosing alveolitis
(b) Vasculitic infarcts
(c) Pulmonary emboli
(d) Diaphragmatic myopathy

13. Which of the following is a longer acting insulin?
(a) Aspart
(b) Glulisine
(c) Lispro
(d) Glargine

14. Which one of the following is not a risk factor for alcoholic liver disease?
(a) Gender
(b) Hepatitis C
(c) Quality of alcohol
(d) Malnutrition

15. All of the following are true about renal cell carcinoma except
(a) Secondaries more common than Primary
(b) More common in males
(c) Mainly arise from renal medulla
(d) Mostly occur in sixth and seventh decade