Organisation : Amity University
Exam : Amity JEE Test – Amity Joint Entrance Examination
Document Type : Sample Question Paper
Exam Dates : 08 April 2019 to 05 May 2019
Results Date : 10 May 2019
Website : http://www.amity.edu/AmityJee.aspx
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Amity Joint Entrance Examination JEE Sample Question Paper
Admission to Amity University B.Tech programs are based on the Amity Joint Entrance Examination (AmityJEE). Amity JEE is a Computer Based Test (CBT) conducted by Pearson VUE (for Amity) and will be held in various cities across India.
Related : Amity University Global Talent Search Exam Model Question Paper Class XI : www.pdfquestion.in/7483.html
AmityJEE Test Sample Paper
Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 360
1. Test paper contains four sections with objective type multiple choice questions. All Sections are compulsory:
a) Section 1: General English (15 Questions.),
b) Section 2: Physics (25 Questions.),
c) Section 3: Chemistry (25 Questions.),
d) Section 4: Mathematics/Biology (25 Questions.).
Note: Students will have to attempt either Mathematics/Biology as per the eligibility of the program applied.
2. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. No marks will be awarded for un-attempted questions.
3. Use of electronic/manual calculator, log tables, cellular phones and slide rulers are not permitted.
4. Answer key for the sample paper is given at the END of the Test Paper.
Download Question Paper :
Section – 1 :
DIRECTION for questions 1 to 3: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer for the questions that follow it.
Cardiac patients surrounded by banks of equipment, popping expensive pills, facing surgery and confronted by the prospect of huge medical bills have one other discomforting thought to engage with: the treatment they are getting might not actually be helping them in the longer term.
1. The author of the passage believes that
(a) changes in lifestyle will not help if they are not supplemented by right drugs.
(b) Ornish’s findings, notwithstanding the conventional treatments of heart diseases, are the best.
(c) treatment of heart disease is best if left to experts in that field.
(d) findings of Ornish are nearly indisputable.
2. An apt title for the passage would be
(a) Diet and Disease.
(b) Have a Heart for your Heart.
(c) Lifestyle and Heart Disease.
(d) Benefits of Meditation.
3. In his book, ‘Reversing Heart Disease’, Ornish says that
(a) operation worsens a patient’s heart disease.
(b) there is no point in performing an operation that anyway has no positive end result.
(c) without imparting adequate knowledge about the benefits of diet and exercise, a heart patient can never enjoy the benefits of his surgery.
(d) the predisposing causes behind a patient’s heart problem should be worked upon first for longtime benefits
DIRECTION for questions 4 and 5: Each question has a sentence with two blanks followed by four pairs of words as choices. From the choices, select the pair of words that can best complete the given sentence.
4. It is difficult for a modern audience, accustomed to the ________ of film and television, to appreciate opera with its grand spectacle and ________ gestures.
(a) sophistication . . . monotonous (b) flamboyance . . . inane
(c) minutiae . . . extravagant (d) plurality . . . subtle
5. Though his music revealed the composer’s ________ and seriousness, his manner displayed his naivety and ________.
(a) sophistication . . . ingenuity (b) levity . . . immaturity
(c) clairvoyance . . . insouciance (d) profundity . . . ingenuousness
6. Trying to keep her balance on the icy surface, the last competitor’s ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow.
(a) the last competitor’s ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow.
(b) the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted in the soft snow.
(c) the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski, and somersaulted into the soft snow.
(d) the last competitor caught the pole with her ski-tip, which made her somersault into the soft snow.
7. The temperature dropped suddenly last night, which will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.
(a) which will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.
(b) which will mean that the frost will kill the shoots emerging from the soil.
(c) and this will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.
(d) and the resulting frost will kill the shoots that are emerging from the soil.
DIRECTION for questions 8 and 9: Each question has a word followed by four choices. From the choices, select the synonym for the given word.
(a) Gratitude (b) Apology (c) Dread (d) Punishment
(a) Religious (b) Masculine (c) Proud (d) Agreeable
DIRECTION for questions 10 and 11: The sentence given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
10. (A) Who can trace to its first beginnings the love of Damon for Pythias, of David for Jonathan, of Swan for Edgar?
(B) Similarly with men.
(C) There is about great friendships between man and a man certain inevitability that can only be compared with the age-old association of ham and eggs.
(D) One simply feels that it is one of the things that must be so.
(E) No one can say the mutual magnetism that brought about the deathless partnership of these wholesome and palatable foodstuffs
(a) ACBED (b) CEDBA (c) ACEBD (d) CEABD
Section 2 :
16. The dimensions of a/b in the equation P = a –t 2/bx where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time are
17. The coordinates of a particle moving at any time t is given by x = 2At2 and y = 2Bt2 where A and B are constants. The speed of the particle is
(a) 4t (A + B)
(b) 22 4t A B ?
(c) 4t (A2 + B2)
(d) 22 2t A B ?
18. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure, then the distance from the foot of the tower where it will strike the ground will be (take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 4000/3 m
(b) 5000/3 m
(c) 2000 m
(d) 3000 m
19. The force required to just move a body up the inclined plane is twice the force required to just prevent the body from sliding down the plane. If µ is the coefficient of friction, the inclination of the plane to the horizontal is
(a) tan–1 2
(b) tan–1 (µ)
(c) tan–1 (2µ)
(d) tan–1 (3µ)
20. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
28. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0ºC and 90ºC respectively. The temperature of junction of the three rods will be
29. A radioactive material has a mean life of 1620 years and 540 years for ? and ? emission respectively. The time in which one half of the material remains undecayed emitting both these radiations is
(a) 202.5 yrs
(b) 280.7 yrs
(c) 405 yrs
(d) 1080 yrs
30. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. Its orbital angular momentum is increased by (given h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(a) 1.05 × 10–34 Js
(b) 3.16 × 10–34 Js
(c) 2.11 × 10–34 Js
(d) 4.22 × 10–34 Js
Section 3 :
41. The number of electrons in an atom with atomic number 105 having (n + l) = 8 are:
42. The ratio a/b (a and b being the van der Waal’s constant of real gases) has the dimensions of
(a) atm mol–1
(b) L mol–1
(c) atm L mol–1
(d) atm L mol–2
43. Resultant molarity of H+ ion in a mixture of 100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.1 M H3PO3 is:
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.2 M
(c) 0.267 M
(d) 0.133 M
44. The chemical reaction, 2O3 ?? 3O2 proceeds as follows:
O3 O2 + O … (fast)
O + O3 ?? 2O2 … (slow)
The rate law expression should be:
(a) r = K[O3]2
(b) r = K[O3]2 [O2]–1
(c) r = K [O3] [O2]
45. For the reaction in equilibrium, N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) the concentrations, of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 ? 10–2 and 1.2 ? 10–2 mol L–1 respectively. The value of Kc for this reaction is:
(a) 3 ? 10–3 mol L–1
(b) 3 ? 103 mol L–1
(c) 3.3? 102 mol L–1
(d) 3 ? 10–1 mol L–1
46. Which one of the following is tribasic acid?
47. In CsBr crystal structure edge length of unit cell is 4.3Å. The shortest interionic distance between Cs+ and Br– ions is
(a) 3.72 Å
(b) 1.86 Å
(c) 7.44 Å
(d) 4.3 Å
48. Which is deliquescent?
49. For which change ?H ? ?U?
(a) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(b) 4(g) 2 2(g) 2 (g) CH 2O ???CO ? 2H O
(c) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
(d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
50. Which one of the following is incorrect for spontaneous adsorption of gas on solid surface?
(a) H decreases for system
(b) S (total) increases
(c) S decreases for gas
(d) G increases for system
Mathematics / Biology
Students will have to attempt either Mathematics/Biology as per the eligibility of the program applied.
68. If b ? R+ then the roots of the equation 2 2 b x 3 b x 4 b 0 is
(a) real and distinct
(b) real and equal
(d) cannot predicted
69. Solve for integral solutions x1 + x2 + x3 + … + x6 ? 17, where 1 ? xi ? 6, i = 1, 2, … 6. Number of solutions will be
(a) 17C6 – 611C5
(b) 17C11 – 611C5
(c) 17C5 – 6 11C5
(d) 17C11 – 5 11C6
70. The probability that a certain beginner at golf gets a good shot if he uses the correct club is 1/3 , and the probability of a good shot with an incorrect club is 1 4 In his bag there are 5 different clubs, only one of which is correct for the shot in question. If he chooses a club at random and take a stroke, the probability that he gets a good shot is
71. OPQR is a square and M, N are the middle points of the side PQ and QR respectively. Then the ratio of the area of the square and the triangle OMN is
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 3
(d) 8 : 3
66. Mendel selected pea plant because
(a) The flower structure of pea is such as to allow uncontrolled breeding
(b) Pea flower normally remains open and undergoes self-pollination
(c) It is an annual plant with short life span and give results within 3 months
(d) Small number of seeds are produced per pea plant
67. According to the concept of dominance the following statements are given below. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct answer
(A) Wild allele is a fully functional allele that forms RNA, proteins but not enzymes
(B) The mutant allele generally produces a faulty product or no product at all
(C) The modified functional wild type allele represents the original phenotype
(D) The modified or mutated non-functional allele behave as recessive allele
(a) A, B & C are correct (b) B & D are correct
(c) Only ‘D’ is correct (d) B, C & D are correct
68. What is the probability of obtaining pure homozygous individuals if a cross is made between AaBbCcDd ? aaBBCCdd individuals ?
69. The minimum height of guava plant is 10 metre. 2 polygene pairs contribute to the height of plant. The maximum height of plant is 34 metres. What will be the height of plant with genotype AaBb ?
(a) 12 metre
(b) 22 metre
(c) 32 metre
(d) 30 metre
70. A plant (Mirabillis jalapa) with homozygous red flowers and round seeds (RRWW) was crossed with white flowers and wrinkled seeds to get the F1 generation. What will be the percentage of plants having red flowers and round seeds obtained in F2 generation ?
71. Choose the correct match
(a) Dominant epistasis – 9 : 3 : 4
(b) Duplicate genes – 9 : 6 : 1
(c) Dominant – recessive epistasis – 13 : 3
(d) Polymeric gene – 12 : 3 : 1
72. (a) A–Volvox, B–Fucus, C–Chara, D–Polysiphasia
(b) A–Volvox, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus, D–Chara
(c) A–Volvox, B–Chara, C–Dictyota, D–Polysiphonia
(d) A–Volvox, B–Chara, C–Fucus, D–Polysiphonia
73. The dominant phase in the life cycle of bryophytes is
(a) Gamophytic plant body
(b) Sporophytic plant body
(c) Both gametophytic and sporophytic plant body
(d) None of these
74. Parental combination in coupling and repulsion can be expressed as Coupling Repulsion
(a) AABB ? aabb AABB ? AAbb
(b) aaBB ? aabb AAbb ? aabb
(c) AABB ? aabb AAbb ? aaBB
(d) AAbb ? aaBB AaBb ? aabb
75. The term X body given by Henking was actually
(a) Chromatin body of the nucleus (b) Centrioles
(c) Autosomes (d) X chromosome
76. Turner’s syndrome has the following genotype
77. In the global biodiversity of vertebrates, (A) and (B) in the following figure represent
(a) Amphibians and Reptiles
(b) Fishes and Reptiles
(c) Mammals and Birds
(d) Fishes and Birds
78. In the given diagram biome distribution with respect to annual temperature and precipitation. A, B and C represent
(a) A-Coniferous forest, B-Desert, C-Grassland, D-Alpine tundra
(b) A-Desert, B-Grassland, C-Temperate forest, D-Arctic
(c) A-Tropical forest, B-Coniferous forest, C-Temperate forest, D-Alpine tundra
(d) A-Temperature forest, B-Alpine tundra, C-Arctic, D-Grassland
79. Undifferentiated layer present between extoderm and endoderm is called
80. In some, animals body is externally and internally divided into segments, this phenomenon of segmentation is called
81. Bath sponge commanly called as
82. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Inspiration can occur if there is a positive pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure
(b) An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intra-pulmonary pressure to less than the atmospheric pressure
(c) Expiration takes place when the intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(d) On an average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute
83. For completion of respiration process, write the given steps in sequential manner
(A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
(B) Transport of gases by blood.
(C) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.
(D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out.
(E) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
(a) D A B E C
(b) B D C A E
(c) A B E C D
(d) C E A D B
84. Identify the correct and incorrect match about respiratory volume and capacities and mark the correct answer
i. Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Residual Volume
ii. Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV).
iii. Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
iv. Tidal Volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity (IC) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
(a) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(b) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(c) (i) Correct, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(d) (i) Correct, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Correct, (iv) Incorrect
85. The 24 hour (diuranal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone
86. Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate specific target tissues. Their specificity is due to the presence of signal receiving ‘receptors’ only in the respective target tissues. Where are these receptors present in case of hormones of protein nature ?
(a) Extra cellular matrix
(c) Plasma membrane
87. Which one is involved in carbohydrate metabolism ?
88. How many of the given statements are correct with regard to placenta in embryonic development ?
(A) The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form placenta.
(B) Placenta is a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body.
(C) The placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and also removal of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo.
89. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child ?
(a) One X and one Y chromosome
(b) Two X chromosomes
(c) Only one Y chromosome
(d) Only one X chromosome
90. Which one can be considered as most advanced type of IUD ?
(a) Lippes loop
(c) Multiload 375