mpscmanipur.gov.in MPSC Limited Departmental Examination SI/ ASI of Police Previous Year Questions : Manipur Public Service Commission
Organisation : Manipur Public Service Commission
Exam : Limited Departmental Examination
Post : SI/ ASI of Police
Subject : Paper – I,II
Year : 2017
Document Type : Previous Year’s Questions
Website : https://mpscmanipur.gov.in/question.html
MPSC LDE SI/ ASI of Police Previous Year Question
Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
Related : MPSC Limited Departmental Examination Inspector of Taxes Previous Year Question : www.pdfquestion.in/33191.html
Instructions
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Test Booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet.
2. Write your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers) written as (a), (b), (c) and (d). You will select the response which you feel is correct and want to mark on the answer sheet.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. Also read the directions in the Answer Sheet. Fill in all the entries in the Answer Sheet correctly, failing which your Answer Sheet shall not be evaluated.
5. Count the number of questions attempted carefully and write it down in the space provided in the OMR Sheet. This has to be verified by the Invigilator before leaving.
6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded you should hand over to the Invigilator the Answer Sheet (in original). You are permitted to take away 2nd Copy of OMR Answer Sheet and the Test Booklet.
7. All items carry equal marks.
8. Candidature would be cancelled in case of non-compliance with any of these instructions.
9. There will be NO PENALTY for wrong answers.
Download Question Paper :
Paper – I :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/33199-LDEPaI.pdf
Paper – II :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/33199-LDEPaII.pdf
Criminal Law & Procedure
1. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood guard with an axe in hand but did not hit ‘Z’. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’.
a) Only Y is liable for the murder of Z
b) Both X and Y are liable for the murder of Z
c) X is not liable since he did not do any overt act
d) Both (a) and (c)
2. The fundamental principle of criminal liability is embodied in the maxim “actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea”. The maxim was developed by:
a) Equity Courts
b) Common Law Courts
c) Supreme Court of the USA
d) Courts of England
3. To establish section 34 of the IPC,
a) Common intention needs to be proved but not overt act be proved
b) Both common intention and overt act need to be proved
c) Common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
d) All the above
4. Under section 498A of the IPC, cruelty means
a) Physical cruelty
b) Mental cruelty
c) Harassment of the woman
d) Any of the above
5. Which one of the following is not a “Public Servant” under IPC?
a) Liquidator
b) A Civil Judge
c) A member of a Panchayat assisting a Court of Justice
d) Secretary of a Co-Operative Society.
6. Sections 76 and 79 of the IPC provides for the general exception of
a) Mistake of law
b) Mistake of fact
c) Both mistake of law and fact
d) Either mistake of law or of fact
7. Persons falling under section 21 of IPC
a) Should be a public servant appointed by the Government
b) Should be a public servant which may not be appointed by the Government
c) Should be a public servant which may or may not be appointed by the Government
d) None of the above.
8. Mr. Thoiba, being legally bound to appear before the District Judge, as a witness in obedience to a summons issued by that District Judge intentionally omits to appear. Mr. Thoiba has committed the offence of
a) Preventing service of summons or other proceeding, or preventing publication thereof
b) Omission to produce document to public servant by person legally bound to produce it
c) Non-attendance in obedience to an order from public servants
d) Furnishing false evidence.
9. A gives false evidence before a Court of Justice, intending thereby to cause Z to be convicted of a dacoity. The punishment of dacoity is imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, with or without fine. A therefore is liable to
a) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment, with or without fine
b) Not liable to imprisonment for life
c) Rigorous imprisonment for a term of six years
d) None of the above.
10. Omission to assist public servant when bound by law to give assistance, is provided under
a) Section 175 of IPC
b) Section 182 of IPC
c) Section 172 of IPC
d) Section 187 of IPC.
11. Under the provision of IPC, fraudulent removal or concealment of property to prevent its seizure as forfeited or in execution shall be punished with
a) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to four years, or with fine, or with both
c) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
d) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
12. The printing or publication of the judgement of any High Court or the Supreme Court does not amount to an offence within the meaning of
a) Section 222-A of IPC
b) Section 225-A of IPC
c) Section 228-A of IPC
d) Section 228-B of IPC.
13. Under the provision of section 201 of IPC, A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to hide the body with the intention of screening B from punishment. A is liable to
a) Imprisonment of either description for seven years
b) Imprisonment of either description for seven years, and also to fine
c) Imprisonment of either description for twelve years, and also to fine
d) Imprisonment of either description for twelve years.
14. “Harbouring offender” is provided under
a) Section 190 of IPC
b) Section 202 of IPC
c) Section 212 of IPC
d) Section 220 of IPC.
15. Under the provision of IPC, an order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to promulgate such order, directing that a religious procession shall not pass down a certain street. A knowingly disobeys the order, and thereby causes danger of riot. A has committed the offence defined under
a) Section 182
b) Section 188
c) Section 200
d) Section 222
16. ‘Evidence’ under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 includes
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Both
d) Neither
17. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
a) Proceedings before Tribunals
b) Proceedings before the Arbitrator
c) Judicial proceedings in Courts
d) All the above
18. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a) If it is in issue and have occurred at the same time and place
b) If it is in issue and may have occurred at the same time and place
c) Though not in issue and may have occurred at the same time and place, or at different times and places
d) Though not in issue, but must have occurred at the same time and place
19. Admission can be
a) Formal only
b) Informal only
c) Either formal or informal
d) Only formal and not informal
20. Confession of an accused is admissible against co-accused
a) If they are tried jointly for the same offences
b) If they are tried jointly for different offences
c) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly
General Laws, Acts & Regulations
1. The statutory powers of Inspector General of Police under section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is subject to-
a) Article 32 of the Constitution of India
b) Article 226 of the Constitution of India
c) Article 309of the Constitution of India
d) Article 311 of the Constitution of India.
2. All moneys payable under section 13, 14, 15, and 15A shall be recoverable by the Magistrate in the manner-
a) For the recovery of fines
b) By suit in any competent Court
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Both (a) and (b).
3. Any charge against a police officer not below the rank of constable shall be inquired into and determined by
a) A person authorised by State government
b) Only by an officer exercising the powers of Magistrate
c) District Magistrate
d) None of the above.
4. Who is at liberty to call for and inspect the dairy?
a) Defendants’ Counsel
b) Plaintiff’s Counsel
c) Magistrate of the district.
d) All of the above.
5. Which section of Police Act, 1861, cast a duty on every police officer to take the charge of all unclaimed property?
a) Section 30
b) Section 25
c) Section 20
d) Section 15.
6. Penalties for neglect of duties are provided under which section of the Police Act?
a) Section 20
b) Section 23
c) Section 25
d) Section 29.
7. Firearms under the Arms Act includes
a) Hand-grenades
b) Platforms and appliances for mounting
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) and (b).
8. Which one the following is excluded from the definition of ‘arms’?
a) Artillery
b) Discharge of any noxious liquid or gas
c) Spears
d) Riot-pistols.
9. Under the Arms Act, no person shall acquire, have in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition
a) Who has not completed the age of 18
b) Who has not completed the age of 21
c) Who has not completed the age of 25
d) None of the above.
10. Refusal of licenses is provided under which section of the Arms Act
a) Section 20
b) Section 18
c) Section 16
d) Section 14.
11. Whoever shortens the barrel of a firearm or converts an imitation firearm into a firearm in contravention of section 5 of Arms Act
a) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine
b) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but may extend to seven years and shall not be liable to fine
c) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years but may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine
d) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine.
12. Under the Arms Rules, 1962, collection of fees is dealt under
a) Rule 40
b) Rule 55
c) Rule 60
d) Rule 65.
13. Which chapter of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 deals with control of traffic?
a) Chapter II
b) Chapter V
c) Chapter VIII
d) Chapter X.
14. Under section 21(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the period of suspension from the date on which a case of dangerous driving is registered is
a) 1 year
b) 6 months
c) 3 months
d) 2 months.
15. Under which section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, it is laid down that a learner’s license shall be valid for six months.
a) Section 24
b) Section 20
c) Section 18
d) Section 14.
16. The registration certificates and the special registration marks to be assigned to the motor vehicles belonging to diplomatic and consular officers, are to prescribed by the
a) Concerned State Government
b) Central government
c) Only (b) is true
d) Only (a) is true.
17. Issue of permits to State Transport Undertakings is provided under
a) Section 50 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
b) Section 20 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
c) Section 70 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
d) Section 103 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
18. All fines imposed under the Public Gambling Act, 1867, may be recovered in the manner prescribed by
a) Section 61 ofIndian Penal Code
b) Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
c) Section 61 Code of Criminal Procedure
d) The Public Gambling Act.
19. Which of the following state in India legalized gambling in casinos?
a) Goa
b) Sikkim
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) and (b).
20. Who among the following shall be liable to a fine not exceeding two hundreds rupees, or to imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding three months?
a) Whoever advances or furnishes money for the purpose of gaming with persons frequenting such house, walled enclosure, room or place;
b) Whoever, being the owner or occupier of any such house, walled enclosure, room or place as aforesaid, knowingly or wilfully permits the same to be opened, occupied, used or kept by any other person as a common gaming house; and
c) Whoever, being the owner or occupier, or having the use, of any house, walled enclosure, room or place, situated within the limits to which the Public Gambling Act applies, opens, keeps or uses the same as a common gaming house;
d) All of the above.