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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam FTRE Class VIII Sample Paper 2018 :

Name of the Organisation : FIIT JEE Ltd
Name of the Paper : FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam – 2018
Year : 2018
Class : VIII Std
Document Type : Sample Paper
Website :

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam Class VIII Sample Paper

Download Question Paper of FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam – 2018 Class VIII Sample Paper is now available in the official website of FIIT JEE Ltd
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm)
Maximum Marks: 240

Related : FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam FTRE Class VII Sample Paper 2018 :


Note : Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60 Minutes on Section-III.

2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below :

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.

5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Section – I

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Aptitude Test

This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the following question a number series is given. Below the series, a number along with (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is given. You have to complete the series following the same sequence as that of the given series. Then answer the question that follows.
8, 4, 6, 15, 52.5, 236.25
4, (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
What will come in place of (4)?
(A) 36.25
(B) 26.25
(C) 16.25
(D) 32.75

Download Question Paper :

2. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

3. Select the related word from the given alternatives.
Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?
(A) Pond
(B) Rain
(C) Stream
(D) Canal

4. If ‘–’ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication, ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘x’ for addition, which one of the following equations is correct?
(A) 18 ÷ 3 × 2 + 8 – 6 = 10
(B) 18 – 3 + 2 × 8 ÷ 6 = 14
(C) 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 8 + 6 = 17
(D) 18 × 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15

5. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the equation correct? 5 + 3 × 8 –12 ÷ 4 = 3
(A) – and ÷
(B) + and ×
(C) + and ÷
(D) + and –

6. Find the odd word from the given alternative.
(A) Shimla
(B) Ooty
(C) Darjeeling
(D) Agra

7. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the equation. 48 * 4 * 6 * 3 * 30
(A) –, +, =, ×
(B) ÷, =, ×, +
(C) ÷, +, ×, =
(D) –, =, ×, +

8. X is the husband of Y. W is the daughter of X. Z is the husband of W. N is the daughter of Z. What is the relationship of N to Y?
(A) Cousin
(B) Niece
(C) Daughter
(D) Grand daughter

9. Introducing a boy, a man says, “He is the son of the brother of my grandfather’s son.” How is the boy related to the man?
(A) Brother
(B) Grandfather
(C) Nephew
(D) Cousin

10. X walked 20 feet from A to B in the East direction. Then X turned to the right and walked 6 feet. Again X turned to the right and walked 28 feet. How far is X from A?
(A) 28
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 27

Section – II


(PART – A)
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity ??
(A) (m?)2
(B) m?2
(C) 1m 22
(D) m?

32. Newton’s second law of motion gives us a measure of
(A) force
(B) inertia
(C) mass
(D) acceleration

33. The S.I. unit of thrust is
(A) Newton
(B) N m–1
(C) N m
(D) Pascal

34. Fluids are
(A) solids and liquids
(B) liquids and gases
(C) solids and gases
(D) only liquids

35. An instrument commonly used in laboratory to produce a sound of some particular frequency is
(A) sonar
(B) electric bell
(C) tuning fork
(D) a stretched wire

36. Galileo’s law of inertia is another name for Newton’s ……… law of motion
(A) first
(B) third
(C) second
(D) none of these

37. In which of the three mediums: air, water and steel, does sound travel the fastest?
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Steel
(D) None of these

38. Buoyant force exerted by different fluids on a given body is
(A) same
(B) different
(C) zero
(D) negligible

39. When a sound wave travels in air, the physical quantity which is transferred from one place to the other is
(A) mass
(B) force
(C) momentum
(D) energy


(Part – B) :
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
40. The most abundant element in the universe is
(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) helium
(D) carbon

41. The major raw materials for rayon is obtained from
(A) wood
(B) coal
(C) petroleum
(D) both coal and petroleum

42. The conversion of wood into coal occurs by a biochemical process that takes over millions of years and is known as …………
(A) catenation
(B) carbonization
(C) pyrolysis
(D)destructive distillation

43. Select the one that occurs in native form:
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Gold

44. Main constituent of marsh gas is
(A) ethane
(B) acetylene
(C) ethyne
(D) methane

45. Which of the following contains isoprene units?
(A) Natural rubber
(B) Nylon-6, 6
(C) Polyethylene
(D) Dacron


(Part – C) :
51. This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

There are two positive numbers in the ratio 5:8. If the larger number exceeds the smaller by 15. Find the smaller number
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 35

52. The least number which is a perfect square and has 540 as a factor.
(A) 8100
(B) 6400
(C) 4800
(D) 3600

53. Diagonals of a rhombus are 6 cm and 8 cm respectively. The side will be equal to (in cm)
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

54. Which of the following is not a pythagorean triplet?
(A) (8, 15, 17)
(B) (12, 35, 38)
(C) (18, 80, 82)
(D) (10, 24, 26)


(Part – D) :
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
58. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different
(A) Traditional methods of cultivation
(B) Traditional methods of weeding
(C) Traditional methods of seed sowing
(D) Traditional methods of irrigation

59. ________ is a biological preparation that provides active immunity to a particular disease.
(A) Vaccination
(B) Antibiotics
(C) Medication
(D) none of these

60. The Ranthambore National Park and wildlife sanctuary is located at
(A) Odisha
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh

61. Which of the following is not true for fertilizers?
(A) They increase the yield
(B) Their excessive use disturbs the balance of nutrients in soil
(C) They are generally used in small quantity
(D) They are environment friendly

62. Which one of the following agricultural implement is used for soil preparation?
(A) Sickle
(B) Plough
(C) Harvester
(D) None

63. Tuberculosis is caused by
(A) Bacillus
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Paramyxovirus
(D) Mycobacterium tuberculi

64. Food preservation ensures that the food lasts for a longer time without getting spoiled. Which of the following methods is used to preserve the food materials?
(A) Drying and dehydration
(B) Sterilization
(C) Saltation
(D) All of these

65. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to Nitrite (NO2–) and then to Nitrates (NO3–) is called–
(A) Nitrification
(B) Denitrification
(C) Deamination
(D) Nitrogen fixation

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