IIT Ashram UDDAN Science Aptitude Test Class IX Questions Paper : iitashram.com

Name of the Organization : IIT Ashram
Name of the Examination : UDDAN Science Aptitude Test
Document Type : Sample Questions Paper
Class : IX Std
Website : https://www.iitashram.com/uddan.php

UDDAN Science Aptitude Test Class IX Questions Paper

Download Question Paper of UDDAN Science Aptitude Test Sample Questions Paper Class IX is now available in the official website of IIT Ashram.
Time : 1.30 Hour.
Maximum Marks : 220
M.M.: 180
Time : 50 Min.

Related : IIT Ashram UDDAN Science Aptitude Test Class VIII Sample Questions Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/32946.html

Important Instructions

A. General :
1. This booklet consists of 55 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

3. The answer sheet, a machine–readable Objective Response Sheet (OMR), is provided separately.
4. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE OMR OR THE BOOKLET.

5. Write Name and Address in capital letters of OMR sheet.
6. Submit the OMR Sheet back to Invigilator after examination.

B. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 2 Sections.
SECTION – A : Mental Ability & Mathematics (25 Questions)
SECTION – B : Physics, Chemistry & Biology (30 Questions)
C. Marking Scheme :

8. For each question in Section A & B you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

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Sample Question Paper

Section A

1. 17, 25, 37, 50, 65, 82, 101
(a) 25
(b) 17
(c) 101
(d) 65

2. Choose the odd-one out:
(a) 9
(b) 28
(c) 217
(d) 64

3. Find the missing term.
a) 72
(b) 70
(c) 68
(d) 66

4. Find the missing term :
B E I N T ?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) U
(d) Z

5. If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code for which word?
(a) PRIDE
(b) BRIDE
(c) BLADE
(d) BLIND

6. If the numbers from 5 to 85 which are exactly divisible by 5 are arranged in descending order, which would come at the eleventh place from the bottom?
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) None

7. Five girls are standing facing to the west. Vinita is to the left of Rashmi. Gunjan is between Sweta and Arpana. Sweta is third from the right. Who is at the extreme left?
(a) Rashmi
(b) Sweta
(c) Gunjan
(d) Arpana

8. If T means ‘–’, R means ‘+’ P means ‘×’, M means ‘?’, S means ‘=’, Q means ‘>’ and N means ‘<’, then which one of the answer is correct?
(a) 5 P 6M 10 R 8 T 7 N 10 T 7
(b) 2 R 6 T 8 P 3 Q 7 R 2 P 3
(c) 35 M 5 T 2 R 12 N 6 P 3
(d) 35 R 8 P 2 M 4 T 10 S 10 P 3 T 7

9. If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’; ‘–‘ means ‘multiplied by’; ‘×’ means ‘minus’ and ‘?’ means ‘plus’; then 8 + 6 – 2 ? 4 × 4 = ?
(a) 12
(b) 38
(c) 952
(d) 211

10. Find the missing term 5 3 7 5 6 4
19 ? 29
4 6 5
A B C
(a) 25
(b) 37
(c) 41
(d) 47

11. Find the value of a b a c b c b a 1 xc a xc b
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) – 1
(d) 2

12. In quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, which when divided by (x – 1), (x – 2) and (x – 3) leaves remainders of 11, 22, and 37 respectively then find 5a + 4b + 2c =?
(a) 35
(b) 36
(c) 37
(d) 38

13. The sides of a triangle ABC are as shown in the given figure. Let D be any internal point of this triangle and let e, f, and g denote the distance between the point D and the sides of the riangle. The sum (5e + 12f + 13g) is equal to
(a) 120
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 30

14. Three sides of a regular hexagon, no two of which share a vertex of the hexagon are exteded to form an equilateral triangle. The perimeter of the triangle thus formed is p times the perimeter of the original hexagon where p equals
(a) 3/1
(b) 2/1
(c) 2/3
(d) 3/2

15. Solution set of the equation32x2 2.3×2 x 6 32(x 6) 0 ? ? ? ? ? ? is
(a) {–3, 2}
(b) {6, –1}
(c) {–2, 3}
(d) {1, – 6}

Section B

1. Ultrasonic, Infrasonic and audible waves travel through a medium with speeds Vu ,Vi and Va respectively, then
(a) Vu , Vi and Va are nearly equal
(b) Vu ? Va ? Vi
(c) Vu ? Va ? Vi
(d) Va ? Vu and Vu ? Vi

2. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 5 cm. If 2 complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of the wave is
(a) 10 cm/sec
(b) 2.5 cm/sec
(c) 5 cm/sec
(d) 15 cm/sec

3. A tank 5 m high is half filled with water and then is filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 g/cm3. The pressure at the bottom of the tank, due to these liquids is
(a) 1.85 g/cm2
(b) 89.25 g/cm2
(c) 462.5 g/cm2
(d) 500 g/cm2

4. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended from a spring balance. It weighs 12 N in air. It is suspended in water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of the spring balance is
(a) 10 N
(b) 9 N
(c) 8 N
(d) 7 N

5. A body of mass 2 kg slides down a curved track which is quadrant of a circle of radius 1 metre. All the surfaces are frictionless. If the body starts from rest, its speed at the bottom of the track is
(a) 4.43 m/sec
(b) 2 m/sec
(c) 0.5 m/sec
(d) 19.6 m/sec

6. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 36%. The decrease in its momentum is
(a) 36%
(b) 20%
(c) 8%
(d) 6%

7. A body has speed V, 2V and 3V in first 1/3 of distance S, seconds 1/3 of S and third 1/3 of S respectively. Its average speed will be
(a) V
(b) 2V
(c) V11/18
(d) V18/11

8. Two trains one of length 100 m and another of length 125 m, are moving in mutually opposite directions along parallel lines, meet each other, each with speed 10m/s. If their acceleration are 0.3m/s2 and 0.2m/s2 respectively, then the time they take to pass each other will be
(a) 5 s
(b) 10 s
(c) 15 s
(d) 20 s

9. How far does sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 250 Hz completes 50 vibrations? The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(a) 1.36 metre
(b) 50 metre
(c) 0.74 metre
(d) 68 metre

10. Which of the following compound in which cation and anion has same no. of electrons?
(a) CaO
(b) MgS
(c) MgO
(d) MgCl2

11. Which of the following contains the least number of molecules?
(a) 16 g carbon dioxide (CO2)
(b) 8 g of oxygen (O2)
(c) 4 g of nitrogen (N2)
(d) 2 g of hydrogen (H2)

12. The mixture of sand and iodine can be separated by
(a) crystallisation
(b) sublimation
(c) distillation
(d) fractional distilhtion

13. Which of the following contains only one element.
(a) Marble
(b) diamond
(c) glass
(d) sand

14. Two elements X and Y have atomic weights of 14 and 16. They form a series of compounds A, B, C, D and E in which for the same amount of element X, Y is present in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 5. If the compound A has 28 parts by weight of X and 16 parts by weight of Y, then the compound of C will have 28 parts weight of X and
(a) 32 parts by weight of Y
(b) 48 parts by weight of Y
(c) 64 parts by weight of Y
(d) 80 parts by weight of Y

15. Which species contains more protons than electrons?
(a) Sodium atom
(b) Sulphide ion
(c) Sulphur atom
(d) Sodium ion

16. Formula of chloride of a metal M is MCl3. Formula of its phosphate is
(a) M(PO4)2
(b) M3PO4
(c) MPO4
(d) M2PO4

17. In which of the following reactions there is no change in valency
(a) 4KClO3 -> 3KClO4 -> KCl
(b) SO2 -> 2H2S -> 2H2O -> 3S
(c) BaO2 -> H2SO4 -> BaSO4 -> H2O2
(d) 2BaO -> O2 -> 2BaO2

18. Which of the following mixtures are homogenous ?
(a) Oil and water
(b) Brass
(c) Kerosene and petrol
(d) Sugar and water
(e) Water and acetone
(g) Ammonia and water
(h) Sulphuric acid and water
(a) b,c,d,g,h
(b) c,d,f
(c) b,e,g,h
(d) c,d,e.h

19. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(a) Rhynia
(b) Selaginella
(c) Equisetum
(d) None of these

20. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(a) Heterospory
(b) Seed habit
(c) Homospory
(d) All of these

21. In Pinus present only—
(a) Male cone
(b) Female cone
(c) Male and female cones
(d) All of these