upsc.gov.in Combined Medical Services Exam Previous Question Paper 2018 : Union Public Commission

Organisation : Union Public Service Commission
Exam : Combined Medical Services Examination, 2018
Document Type : Previous Year Question Papers
Year : 2018
Exam Date : 22.07.2018
Paper : Medical Sciences Paper – I & II
Website : http://www.upsc.gov.in/examinations/previous-question-papers

UPSC Combined Medical Services Previous Question Paper

Question Paper of Combined Medical Services Examination Paper for Medical Sciences Paper – I & II 2018 is now available in the official website of Union Public Service Commission.

Related : Union Public Service Commission CAPF – AC Examination 2016 : www.pdfquestion.in/9950.html

How To Download Question Paper

Follow the below steps to download the question paper of Combined Medical Services Examination, 2018 Medical Sciences Paper – I & II .

Steps :
Step 1 : Go to the UPSC official website http://www.upsc.gov.in
Step 2 : Click on the previous Question Paper link under the Examination Tab which is on the Home Page.

Step 3 : Enter the Examination Name in the search box click on apply button to view the question paper or you can directly download the question Paper below

Download Question Paper :
Medical Sciences Paper – I : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/upscmed1.pdf
Medical Sciences Paper – II : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/upscmed2.pdf

Model Questions

Medical Sciences Paper I

1. Most common valve involved in Carcinoid syndrome is:
(a) Mitral valve
(b) Tricuspid valve
(c) Aortic valve
(d) Pulmonary valve

2. A 70 year old man reports to the emergency with acute chest pain. ECG shows inferior wall Myocardial Infarction (MI). He has recently been discharged 7 days back following thrombolysis with streptokinase for Acute Anterior wall MI. What will be the appropriate management?
(a) Aspirin, Sublingual nitroglycerin, Clopidogrel, Primary PCI
(b) Aspirin, Sublingual nitroglycerin, Clopidogrel, Streptokinase
(c) Aspirin, Sublingual nitroglycerin, Clopidogrel, Heparin
(d) Aspirin, Sublingual nitroglycerin, Clopidogrel, Beta blockers

3. The presence of a fusion beat on an Electrocardiogram is diagnostic of:
(a) Atrial Fibrillation
(b) Ventricular Tachycardia
(c) Supraventricular Tachycardia
(d) Sinus Bradycardia

4. A 64 year old man presents with chest pain of 24 hours duration. His ECG reveals ST elevation, Anterior Wall Myocardial Infarction. The preferred treatment modality for him is:
(a) Primary percutaneous coronary intervention
(b) Thrombolysis with Alteplase
(c) Thrombolysis with Streptokinase
(d) Nitroglycerin infusion , Aspirin and Beta blockers

5. The preferred anti hypertensive drug for a 74 year old male with benign prostatic hypertrophy is:
(a) Amlodepine
(b) Hydrochlorothiazide
(c) Prazosin
(d) Atenolol

6. The treatment of choice for a 32 year old male patient of severe mitral stenosis (Rheumatic) with thickened and calcified valves on echocardiography is:
(a) Balloon valvuloplasty
(b) Mitral valve replacement
(c) Medical management only
(d) Mitral valvotomy

7. Which one of the following is an example of Type-IV respiratory failure?
(a) Bronchial asthma
(b) Pulmonary embolism
(c) COPD
(d) Shock

8. All of the following are seen in Polyarteritis Nodosa EXCEPT:
(a) Glomerulonephritis
(b) Peripheral Neuropathy
(c) Bowel Infarction
(d) Pericarditis

9. All of the following are the pointers to organic cause of psychiatric disease EXCEPT:
(a) Late age of onset of psychiatric illness
(b) No previous history of psychiatric illness
(c) Family history of psychiatric illness
(d) No apparent psychological precipitant

10. All of the following are Long Acting Beta Agonists (LABA) EXCEPT:
(a) Levo salbutamol
(b) Salmeterol
(c) Formoterol
(d) Indacaterol

Medical Sciences Paper II

1. What are the characteristics of ideal health indicators?
(a) They should be valid, reliable, sensitive, specific, feasible and relevant
(b) They should be mainly valid, reliable and sensitive but need not be specific
(c) They should be mainly valid, reliable and feasible but need not be sensitive
(d) They should be mainly valid, reliable and relevant but need not be feasible

2. Which one of the following statements regarding predictive value of a positive test is true?
(a) It does not tell about diagnostic power of test
(b) The more prevalent the disease, the less accurate the test is
(c) It tells the probability that a patient with positive test has the disease in question
(d) It tells the probability that a patient with positive test does not have the disease in question

3. The yield of a screening test CAN NOT be increased by which of the following?
(a) Including entire population
(b) Including high risk population
(c) Improved sensitivity
(d) Improved specificity

4. Which one of the following statements regarding the growth chart is NOT true?
(a) It is used as a tool for growth monitoring and diagnosis
(b) It is used for planning and policy making
(c) It is used as tool for action against the Anganwadi worker
(d) It is used as tool for teaching and evaluation of effectiveness of programme

5. Flattening of the growth curve in the growth chart signifies:
(a) Child is on a healthy path
(b) Child is severely malnourished
(c) Child is showing signs of growth failure
(d) Child does not need special care

6. A well of contaminated water resulted in an outbreak of diarrhoea in a community. Which type of epidemic will this exposure present with?
1. Propagated epidemic
2. Common source – continuous exposure
3. Common source – point exposure
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

7. Which one of the following experiments/ trials is NOT a part of non-randomized trial?
(a) Uncontrolled trial
(b) Risk factor trial
(c) Natural experiment
(d) Before and after comparison studies

8. What is the relative risk of developing tuberculosis among tobacco users as per the information given below?
(a) 0.48
(b) 1.33
(c) 2.67
(d) 3.90

9. What is the attributable risk of tobacco for developing tuberculosis as per the information given below?
(a) 50.5%
(b) 62.5%
(c) 70.6%
(d) 80.6%

10. What is the sensitivity of EEG for detecting brain tumours as per the information given below?
(a) 90%
(b) 85%
(c) 0.07%
(d) 99.99%