ggtu.ac.in RET Eligibility Test General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude Question Paper 2018

Name of the University : Govind Guru Tribal University
Exam : Research Eligibility Test 2018
Subject : Paper-I – General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude
Document Type : Model Question Paper
Year : 2018
Website : https://www.ggtu.ac.in/
Download Model Question Paper :
Paper – I QP : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25350-PaperI.pdf
Answer Key : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25350-PaperIAns.pdf

GGTU RET Research Eligibility Test Paper – I Question Paper

No. of Pages in Booklet : 08
No. of Multiple Choice Objective Questions in Booklet : 50
Time : 60
Maximum Marks : 100

Related : Govind Guru Tribal University RET EAFM Economic Administration & Financial Management Question Paper 2018 : www.pdfquestion.in/25345.html

Instructions

1. Answer all the questions.
2. Every question is of two marks.
3. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

4. At the commencement of examination, the Question Booklet will be given to you. In the first five minutes, you are requested to open the Booklet an compulsorily examine it as below: Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the Booklet with the information printed on the cover page.

** Faulty Booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct Booklet rom the invigilator within the period of five minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

5. Give one answer of each question in a separately provided OMR answer sheet.
6. Rough work is to be done on the back of printed papers.

7. There are four optional answer of each question which have written A, B, C, D in English and v] c] l] n in Hindi respectively. Candidate is required to darken the correct options of the answers of each question in the box givenagainst each question No. on the answer sheet. Use only blue/black ball point pen.

8. If you write your Roll No. or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the elevant entries, which may disclosed your indentity or use abusive language, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

** Carrying or use of copying material, talking with another candidate during examination isprohibited. Mobile phone or any electronic equipment is prohibited in the examination hall. If any of the prohibited material or any complaint is received against any candidate, necessary action as per rules will be taken against such candidate.

9. In case any of the candidate is found to copying or any unauthorised/prohibited material is found form his/her, anFIR shall be lodged in the Police against that candidate and action will be taken under Rule 3 of the Prevention of Unfair means Act, 1992. Such applicant can be prohibited from appearing in all examination in future.

10. The English version will be treated as standard in case of any ambiguity or printing mistake.

General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude

1. Which of the following is not a quantitative technique for evaluation of students?
(A) Oral Techniques
(B) Rating Scale Techniques
(C) Written Techniques
(D) Practical Techniques

2. The essence of an effective classroom environment is –
(A) A variety of teaching aids
(B) Lively student-teacher interaction
(C) Pin-drop silence
(D) Strict discipline

3. Which of the following is true regarding formative evaluation?
(A) It refers to term tests, annual tests and external examination .
(B) It is done at the end of the academic session.
(C) It provides continuous feedback to both pupil and process.
(D) It provides overall result of the teaching-learning process.

4. Arrange the following steps of the Inductive Method of teaching in the correct order –
1. Framing tentative solution 2. Searching for data
3. Elimination 4. Recognition of the problem
5. Organization of data 6. Verification
(A) 2,6,1,4,3,5
(B) 6,3,5,1,2,4
(C) 4,2,5,1,3,6
(D) 1,5,3,2,6,4

5. Visual aids of teaching does not include-
(A) Chalk board
(B) Motion pictures
(C) Sketches
(D) Radio

6. A research which makes persistent and patient efforts to discover something new to enrich the human knowledge in a fundamental fashion is called-
(A) Action research
(B) Applied research
(C) Basic research
(D) Motivation research

7. If the population from which a sample is to be drawn does not constitute a homogeneous group then …………….. sampling technique is applied so as to obtain a representative sample.
(A) Stratified
(B) Cluster
(C) Quota
(D) Systematic

8. The press reports made by correspondents constitute.
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Tertiary data
(D) None of the above

9. Which of the following is the characteristic of interratter reliability?
(A) It is the extent to which tests or procedures assess the same characteristics, skill or quality
(B) It is the agreement of measuring instruments over time.
(C) It is the extent to which two or more individuals agree.
(D) It is the extent to which two items measure identical concepts at an identical level of difficulty.

10. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepare a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as.
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium

Read the given passage and answer questions 11-15:
When Fa-hsien visited India in the early fifth century he reported that no respectable person ate meat, the consumption of which was confined to low castes. He probably exaggerated, but certainly by this time many Hindus of higher classes were vegetarians. The growth of vegetarianism was of course linked with the doctrine of non-violence, which was already old at the time of Fa-hsien. It was known in the days of the Upanishads and was elaborated by Buddhism and Jainism, which were largely responsible for the gradual disappearance of the greater Vedic sacrifices at which large number of animals were killed and eaten. The reign of Ashoka is a landmark in the development of vegetarianism, for he encouraged it by his own example, and forbade the killing of many animals.

11. On what theme does the main emphasis of this passage lie?
(A) Food habits of the people
(B) Prevention of cruelty to animals
(C) Healthy system of the time
(D) Agricultural policy of the government

12. The doctrine of non – violence meant –
(A) Animals should not be killed for food.
(B) No compulsion to be vegetarian.
(C) Society was divided into low castes and high castes.
(D) Only Buddhists & Jains were non-violent

13. Foreign visitors should avoid generalization –
(A) As it may lead to exaggeration
(B) They may be guilty of biased reporting
(C) As it may not be true
(D) It may be charitable

14. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘exaggerated’ in the passage?
(A) Cherished
(B) Lessening
(C) Contrary
(D) Popularity

15. Emperor Ashoka encouraged vegetarianism.
(A) By his own example
(B) But did not impose ban on cow slaughter
(C) But did not enact law to prevent cruelty to animals.
(D) But did not impose a ban on animal sacrifice.

16. Which of the following is not a merit of oral communication?
(A) Saves time
(B) Immediate clarification
(C) Permanent
(D) Can be informal

17. Which of the following are semantic barriers to communication?
1. Personal emotions
2. Fears of being misinterpreted
3. Language translation
4. Cue meaning
5. Competencies
6. Gestures
7. Signs and symbols
8. Perceptual variations
(A) 2,5,1,6 (B) 7,3,8,5
(C) 3,7,4,1 (D) 3,4,7,6

18. Dyadic communication is.
(A) Organizational communication
(B) Public communication
(C) Intra-personal communication
(D) Inter-personal communication

19. Which of the following is the first step in effective communication?
(A) Select the channels of communication.
(B) Determine the objectives of communication.
(C) Plan the evaluation procedure.
(D) Identify various means of communication .

20. The project Vidya Vahini launched by Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 2003 is related to.
(A) School computerization programme
(B) TV programme related to mass literacy
(C) Adult literacy programme
(D) Midday meal programme

Answer Key

1 B
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 B
14 B
15 A
16 C
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A